Fair gambler's ruin problem intuitionProbability of Gambler's Ruin with Unequal Gain/LossAdaptive gambler's ruin problemGambler's Ruin with no set target for winGambler's ruin problem - unsure about the number of roundsEffect of Gambler's Ruin Bet Size on DurationGambler's ruin: verifying Markov propertyComparison of duration of two gambler's ruin gamesGambler's Ruin - Probability of Losing in t StepsGambler's Ruin: Win 2 dollars, Lose 1 dollarGambler's ruin Markov chain

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Fair gambler's ruin problem intuition


Probability of Gambler's Ruin with Unequal Gain/LossAdaptive gambler's ruin problemGambler's Ruin with no set target for winGambler's ruin problem - unsure about the number of roundsEffect of Gambler's Ruin Bet Size on DurationGambler's ruin: verifying Markov propertyComparison of duration of two gambler's ruin gamesGambler's Ruin - Probability of Losing in t StepsGambler's Ruin: Win 2 dollars, Lose 1 dollarGambler's ruin Markov chain













7












$begingroup$


In a fair gambler's ruin problem, where the gambler starts with k dollars, wins $1 with probability 1/2 and loses $1 with probability 1/2, and stops when he/she reaches $n or $0.



In the solution (from Dobrow's Introduction to Stochastic Processes with R), they let $p_k$ be defined as the probability of reaching $n with $k in one's inventory. Then they use the fact that $p_k - p_k-1 = p_k-1 - p_k-2 = ... = p_1 - p_0 = p_1$.



Intuitively this means the probability of reaching $n with $k minus the probability of reaching $n with $k-1 is equivalent to the probability of reaching $n with only $1.



Is there an intuitive reason why this is the case?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    7












    $begingroup$


    In a fair gambler's ruin problem, where the gambler starts with k dollars, wins $1 with probability 1/2 and loses $1 with probability 1/2, and stops when he/she reaches $n or $0.



    In the solution (from Dobrow's Introduction to Stochastic Processes with R), they let $p_k$ be defined as the probability of reaching $n with $k in one's inventory. Then they use the fact that $p_k - p_k-1 = p_k-1 - p_k-2 = ... = p_1 - p_0 = p_1$.



    Intuitively this means the probability of reaching $n with $k minus the probability of reaching $n with $k-1 is equivalent to the probability of reaching $n with only $1.



    Is there an intuitive reason why this is the case?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      7












      7








      7


      1



      $begingroup$


      In a fair gambler's ruin problem, where the gambler starts with k dollars, wins $1 with probability 1/2 and loses $1 with probability 1/2, and stops when he/she reaches $n or $0.



      In the solution (from Dobrow's Introduction to Stochastic Processes with R), they let $p_k$ be defined as the probability of reaching $n with $k in one's inventory. Then they use the fact that $p_k - p_k-1 = p_k-1 - p_k-2 = ... = p_1 - p_0 = p_1$.



      Intuitively this means the probability of reaching $n with $k minus the probability of reaching $n with $k-1 is equivalent to the probability of reaching $n with only $1.



      Is there an intuitive reason why this is the case?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      In a fair gambler's ruin problem, where the gambler starts with k dollars, wins $1 with probability 1/2 and loses $1 with probability 1/2, and stops when he/she reaches $n or $0.



      In the solution (from Dobrow's Introduction to Stochastic Processes with R), they let $p_k$ be defined as the probability of reaching $n with $k in one's inventory. Then they use the fact that $p_k - p_k-1 = p_k-1 - p_k-2 = ... = p_1 - p_0 = p_1$.



      Intuitively this means the probability of reaching $n with $k minus the probability of reaching $n with $k-1 is equivalent to the probability of reaching $n with only $1.



      Is there an intuitive reason why this is the case?







      probability stochastic-processes intuition






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 2 days ago









      BSplitter

      572215




      572215










      asked Apr 3 at 0:48









      platypus17platypus17

      667




      667




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          5












          $begingroup$

          Regarding an "intuitive" reason for this relation, note that winning or losing a dollar has an equal chance and is independent of how much your currently have. Thus, the change in probability of winning or losing when starting off with $$1$ more is independent of what your starting value is. Note that if $q_k = 1 - p_k$ is the probability of losing when starting with $$k$, then plugging $p_k = 1 - q_k$ in gives that



          $$q_k-1 - q_k = q_k-2 - q_k - 1 = ldots = q_1 - q_2 = q_0 - q_1 tag1labeleq1$$



          Note you can reverse all the elements by multiplying by $-1$ to give the exact same relationship as with $p_k$.



          Regarding how to get the relationship, this answer originally started with that, as the answer by John Doe states, the difference relation for reaching $n starting with $i is given by



          $$p_i = frac12p_i - 1 + frac12p_i + 1 tag2labeleq2$$



          based on the probabilities of either winning or losing the first time. Summing eqrefeq2 for $i$ from $1$ to $k - 1$ gives



          $$sum_i=1^k-1 p_i = frac12sum_i=1^k-1 p_i - 1 + frac12sum_i=1^k-1 p_i + 1 tag3labeleq3$$



          Having the summations only include the common terms on both sides gives



          $$p_1 + sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + p_k-1 = frac12p_0 + frac12p_1 + frac12sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + frac12sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + frac12p_k-1 + frac12p_k tag4labeleq4$$



          Since the summation parts on both sides up to the same thing, they can be removed. Thus, after moving the $p_0$ and $p_1$ terms to the LHS and the $p_k-1$ term on the left to the RHS, eqrefeq4 becomes



          $$frac12p_1 - frac12p_0 = frac12p_k - frac12p_k-1 tag5labeleq5$$



          Multiplying both sides by $2$, then varying $k$ down, gives the relations you stated are used in the solution. However, it's generally simpler & easier to just manipulate eqrefeq2 to get that $p_i+1 - p_i = p_i - p_i-1$, like John Doe's answer states.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$




















            8












            $begingroup$

            The probability of reaching $$n$ starting with $$k$ can be split up by what possible first steps you can take - you either lose the first toss or win, each with probability $1/2$. If you win, you have $$(k+1)$, so the probability of reaching $$n$ from here is $p_k+1$. If instead, you lose the first toss, then its $$p_k-1$. Then use the Law of Total Probability $P(X)=sum_n P(X|Y_n)P(Y_n)$ where $Y_n$ is a partition of the sample space. In this case, $Y_1=textlose toss$, and $Y_2=textwin toss$. Then you get



            $$p_k=frac12(p_k-1+p_k+1)$$ Rearranging this gives $$2p_k=p_k-1+p_k+1\p_k-p_k-1=p_k+1-p_k$$ as required, and iterating it multiple times gets to $p_1-p_0$, and of course, $p_0=0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













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              2 Answers
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              5












              $begingroup$

              Regarding an "intuitive" reason for this relation, note that winning or losing a dollar has an equal chance and is independent of how much your currently have. Thus, the change in probability of winning or losing when starting off with $$1$ more is independent of what your starting value is. Note that if $q_k = 1 - p_k$ is the probability of losing when starting with $$k$, then plugging $p_k = 1 - q_k$ in gives that



              $$q_k-1 - q_k = q_k-2 - q_k - 1 = ldots = q_1 - q_2 = q_0 - q_1 tag1labeleq1$$



              Note you can reverse all the elements by multiplying by $-1$ to give the exact same relationship as with $p_k$.



              Regarding how to get the relationship, this answer originally started with that, as the answer by John Doe states, the difference relation for reaching $n starting with $i is given by



              $$p_i = frac12p_i - 1 + frac12p_i + 1 tag2labeleq2$$



              based on the probabilities of either winning or losing the first time. Summing eqrefeq2 for $i$ from $1$ to $k - 1$ gives



              $$sum_i=1^k-1 p_i = frac12sum_i=1^k-1 p_i - 1 + frac12sum_i=1^k-1 p_i + 1 tag3labeleq3$$



              Having the summations only include the common terms on both sides gives



              $$p_1 + sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + p_k-1 = frac12p_0 + frac12p_1 + frac12sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + frac12sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + frac12p_k-1 + frac12p_k tag4labeleq4$$



              Since the summation parts on both sides up to the same thing, they can be removed. Thus, after moving the $p_0$ and $p_1$ terms to the LHS and the $p_k-1$ term on the left to the RHS, eqrefeq4 becomes



              $$frac12p_1 - frac12p_0 = frac12p_k - frac12p_k-1 tag5labeleq5$$



              Multiplying both sides by $2$, then varying $k$ down, gives the relations you stated are used in the solution. However, it's generally simpler & easier to just manipulate eqrefeq2 to get that $p_i+1 - p_i = p_i - p_i-1$, like John Doe's answer states.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                5












                $begingroup$

                Regarding an "intuitive" reason for this relation, note that winning or losing a dollar has an equal chance and is independent of how much your currently have. Thus, the change in probability of winning or losing when starting off with $$1$ more is independent of what your starting value is. Note that if $q_k = 1 - p_k$ is the probability of losing when starting with $$k$, then plugging $p_k = 1 - q_k$ in gives that



                $$q_k-1 - q_k = q_k-2 - q_k - 1 = ldots = q_1 - q_2 = q_0 - q_1 tag1labeleq1$$



                Note you can reverse all the elements by multiplying by $-1$ to give the exact same relationship as with $p_k$.



                Regarding how to get the relationship, this answer originally started with that, as the answer by John Doe states, the difference relation for reaching $n starting with $i is given by



                $$p_i = frac12p_i - 1 + frac12p_i + 1 tag2labeleq2$$



                based on the probabilities of either winning or losing the first time. Summing eqrefeq2 for $i$ from $1$ to $k - 1$ gives



                $$sum_i=1^k-1 p_i = frac12sum_i=1^k-1 p_i - 1 + frac12sum_i=1^k-1 p_i + 1 tag3labeleq3$$



                Having the summations only include the common terms on both sides gives



                $$p_1 + sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + p_k-1 = frac12p_0 + frac12p_1 + frac12sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + frac12sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + frac12p_k-1 + frac12p_k tag4labeleq4$$



                Since the summation parts on both sides up to the same thing, they can be removed. Thus, after moving the $p_0$ and $p_1$ terms to the LHS and the $p_k-1$ term on the left to the RHS, eqrefeq4 becomes



                $$frac12p_1 - frac12p_0 = frac12p_k - frac12p_k-1 tag5labeleq5$$



                Multiplying both sides by $2$, then varying $k$ down, gives the relations you stated are used in the solution. However, it's generally simpler & easier to just manipulate eqrefeq2 to get that $p_i+1 - p_i = p_i - p_i-1$, like John Doe's answer states.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  5












                  5








                  5





                  $begingroup$

                  Regarding an "intuitive" reason for this relation, note that winning or losing a dollar has an equal chance and is independent of how much your currently have. Thus, the change in probability of winning or losing when starting off with $$1$ more is independent of what your starting value is. Note that if $q_k = 1 - p_k$ is the probability of losing when starting with $$k$, then plugging $p_k = 1 - q_k$ in gives that



                  $$q_k-1 - q_k = q_k-2 - q_k - 1 = ldots = q_1 - q_2 = q_0 - q_1 tag1labeleq1$$



                  Note you can reverse all the elements by multiplying by $-1$ to give the exact same relationship as with $p_k$.



                  Regarding how to get the relationship, this answer originally started with that, as the answer by John Doe states, the difference relation for reaching $n starting with $i is given by



                  $$p_i = frac12p_i - 1 + frac12p_i + 1 tag2labeleq2$$



                  based on the probabilities of either winning or losing the first time. Summing eqrefeq2 for $i$ from $1$ to $k - 1$ gives



                  $$sum_i=1^k-1 p_i = frac12sum_i=1^k-1 p_i - 1 + frac12sum_i=1^k-1 p_i + 1 tag3labeleq3$$



                  Having the summations only include the common terms on both sides gives



                  $$p_1 + sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + p_k-1 = frac12p_0 + frac12p_1 + frac12sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + frac12sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + frac12p_k-1 + frac12p_k tag4labeleq4$$



                  Since the summation parts on both sides up to the same thing, they can be removed. Thus, after moving the $p_0$ and $p_1$ terms to the LHS and the $p_k-1$ term on the left to the RHS, eqrefeq4 becomes



                  $$frac12p_1 - frac12p_0 = frac12p_k - frac12p_k-1 tag5labeleq5$$



                  Multiplying both sides by $2$, then varying $k$ down, gives the relations you stated are used in the solution. However, it's generally simpler & easier to just manipulate eqrefeq2 to get that $p_i+1 - p_i = p_i - p_i-1$, like John Doe's answer states.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Regarding an "intuitive" reason for this relation, note that winning or losing a dollar has an equal chance and is independent of how much your currently have. Thus, the change in probability of winning or losing when starting off with $$1$ more is independent of what your starting value is. Note that if $q_k = 1 - p_k$ is the probability of losing when starting with $$k$, then plugging $p_k = 1 - q_k$ in gives that



                  $$q_k-1 - q_k = q_k-2 - q_k - 1 = ldots = q_1 - q_2 = q_0 - q_1 tag1labeleq1$$



                  Note you can reverse all the elements by multiplying by $-1$ to give the exact same relationship as with $p_k$.



                  Regarding how to get the relationship, this answer originally started with that, as the answer by John Doe states, the difference relation for reaching $n starting with $i is given by



                  $$p_i = frac12p_i - 1 + frac12p_i + 1 tag2labeleq2$$



                  based on the probabilities of either winning or losing the first time. Summing eqrefeq2 for $i$ from $1$ to $k - 1$ gives



                  $$sum_i=1^k-1 p_i = frac12sum_i=1^k-1 p_i - 1 + frac12sum_i=1^k-1 p_i + 1 tag3labeleq3$$



                  Having the summations only include the common terms on both sides gives



                  $$p_1 + sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + p_k-1 = frac12p_0 + frac12p_1 + frac12sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + frac12sum_i=2^k - 2 p_i + frac12p_k-1 + frac12p_k tag4labeleq4$$



                  Since the summation parts on both sides up to the same thing, they can be removed. Thus, after moving the $p_0$ and $p_1$ terms to the LHS and the $p_k-1$ term on the left to the RHS, eqrefeq4 becomes



                  $$frac12p_1 - frac12p_0 = frac12p_k - frac12p_k-1 tag5labeleq5$$



                  Multiplying both sides by $2$, then varying $k$ down, gives the relations you stated are used in the solution. However, it's generally simpler & easier to just manipulate eqrefeq2 to get that $p_i+1 - p_i = p_i - p_i-1$, like John Doe's answer states.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Apr 3 at 2:54

























                  answered Apr 3 at 1:25









                  John OmielanJohn Omielan

                  4,6312215




                  4,6312215





















                      8












                      $begingroup$

                      The probability of reaching $$n$ starting with $$k$ can be split up by what possible first steps you can take - you either lose the first toss or win, each with probability $1/2$. If you win, you have $$(k+1)$, so the probability of reaching $$n$ from here is $p_k+1$. If instead, you lose the first toss, then its $$p_k-1$. Then use the Law of Total Probability $P(X)=sum_n P(X|Y_n)P(Y_n)$ where $Y_n$ is a partition of the sample space. In this case, $Y_1=textlose toss$, and $Y_2=textwin toss$. Then you get



                      $$p_k=frac12(p_k-1+p_k+1)$$ Rearranging this gives $$2p_k=p_k-1+p_k+1\p_k-p_k-1=p_k+1-p_k$$ as required, and iterating it multiple times gets to $p_1-p_0$, and of course, $p_0=0$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$

















                        8












                        $begingroup$

                        The probability of reaching $$n$ starting with $$k$ can be split up by what possible first steps you can take - you either lose the first toss or win, each with probability $1/2$. If you win, you have $$(k+1)$, so the probability of reaching $$n$ from here is $p_k+1$. If instead, you lose the first toss, then its $$p_k-1$. Then use the Law of Total Probability $P(X)=sum_n P(X|Y_n)P(Y_n)$ where $Y_n$ is a partition of the sample space. In this case, $Y_1=textlose toss$, and $Y_2=textwin toss$. Then you get



                        $$p_k=frac12(p_k-1+p_k+1)$$ Rearranging this gives $$2p_k=p_k-1+p_k+1\p_k-p_k-1=p_k+1-p_k$$ as required, and iterating it multiple times gets to $p_1-p_0$, and of course, $p_0=0$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$















                          8












                          8








                          8





                          $begingroup$

                          The probability of reaching $$n$ starting with $$k$ can be split up by what possible first steps you can take - you either lose the first toss or win, each with probability $1/2$. If you win, you have $$(k+1)$, so the probability of reaching $$n$ from here is $p_k+1$. If instead, you lose the first toss, then its $$p_k-1$. Then use the Law of Total Probability $P(X)=sum_n P(X|Y_n)P(Y_n)$ where $Y_n$ is a partition of the sample space. In this case, $Y_1=textlose toss$, and $Y_2=textwin toss$. Then you get



                          $$p_k=frac12(p_k-1+p_k+1)$$ Rearranging this gives $$2p_k=p_k-1+p_k+1\p_k-p_k-1=p_k+1-p_k$$ as required, and iterating it multiple times gets to $p_1-p_0$, and of course, $p_0=0$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$



                          The probability of reaching $$n$ starting with $$k$ can be split up by what possible first steps you can take - you either lose the first toss or win, each with probability $1/2$. If you win, you have $$(k+1)$, so the probability of reaching $$n$ from here is $p_k+1$. If instead, you lose the first toss, then its $$p_k-1$. Then use the Law of Total Probability $P(X)=sum_n P(X|Y_n)P(Y_n)$ where $Y_n$ is a partition of the sample space. In this case, $Y_1=textlose toss$, and $Y_2=textwin toss$. Then you get



                          $$p_k=frac12(p_k-1+p_k+1)$$ Rearranging this gives $$2p_k=p_k-1+p_k+1\p_k-p_k-1=p_k+1-p_k$$ as required, and iterating it multiple times gets to $p_1-p_0$, and of course, $p_0=0$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited 2 days ago

























                          answered Apr 3 at 1:00









                          John DoeJohn Doe

                          11.8k11339




                          11.8k11339



























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