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Bounding the absolute value of a function with an integral


Prove that the Riemann integral of this function is zeroThe absolute value of a Riemann integrable function is Riemann integrable.Problem on using the definition of Riemann IntegralWhat is $int f$ if $f$ is not Riemann integrable in the reverse direction of this theoremEstimating the Riemann integral of $f$ using an upper bound for $f$Limit of an integrable function on [0,1]Why was it necessary for the Riemann integral to consider all partitions and taggings?Help understanding the proof that a Riemann Integrable function is boundedHelp in understanding a boundedness proof for Riemann integrable functionsHow to calculate the upper and lower Riemann sums with respect to this particular partition P?













6












$begingroup$


I am having trouble with the following problem in analysis:



Suppose that $f, f^prime in C([0, 1])$. Prove that for all $x in [0, 1]$
$$
|f(x)| leq int_0^1 (|f(t)| + |f^prime (t)|) dt.
$$



Any pointers? I have tried writing this as a Riemann Sum (given arbitrary tagged partition) but am still not sure how to proceed.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The constant function $f(t) = 1$ is a counterexample to the stronger inequality, taking any $x < 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Bendit
    May 6 at 3:44






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Wow, I did not realize this. Should have examined it a little more closely, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – onesix
    May 6 at 3:50















6












$begingroup$


I am having trouble with the following problem in analysis:



Suppose that $f, f^prime in C([0, 1])$. Prove that for all $x in [0, 1]$
$$
|f(x)| leq int_0^1 (|f(t)| + |f^prime (t)|) dt.
$$



Any pointers? I have tried writing this as a Riemann Sum (given arbitrary tagged partition) but am still not sure how to proceed.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The constant function $f(t) = 1$ is a counterexample to the stronger inequality, taking any $x < 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Bendit
    May 6 at 3:44






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Wow, I did not realize this. Should have examined it a little more closely, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – onesix
    May 6 at 3:50













6












6








6


1



$begingroup$


I am having trouble with the following problem in analysis:



Suppose that $f, f^prime in C([0, 1])$. Prove that for all $x in [0, 1]$
$$
|f(x)| leq int_0^1 (|f(t)| + |f^prime (t)|) dt.
$$



Any pointers? I have tried writing this as a Riemann Sum (given arbitrary tagged partition) but am still not sure how to proceed.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am having trouble with the following problem in analysis:



Suppose that $f, f^prime in C([0, 1])$. Prove that for all $x in [0, 1]$
$$
|f(x)| leq int_0^1 (|f(t)| + |f^prime (t)|) dt.
$$



Any pointers? I have tried writing this as a Riemann Sum (given arbitrary tagged partition) but am still not sure how to proceed.







real-analysis






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited May 6 at 3:57







onesix

















asked May 6 at 3:24









onesixonesix

616




616







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The constant function $f(t) = 1$ is a counterexample to the stronger inequality, taking any $x < 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Bendit
    May 6 at 3:44






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Wow, I did not realize this. Should have examined it a little more closely, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – onesix
    May 6 at 3:50












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The constant function $f(t) = 1$ is a counterexample to the stronger inequality, taking any $x < 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Bendit
    May 6 at 3:44






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Wow, I did not realize this. Should have examined it a little more closely, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – onesix
    May 6 at 3:50







1




1




$begingroup$
The constant function $f(t) = 1$ is a counterexample to the stronger inequality, taking any $x < 1$.
$endgroup$
– Theo Bendit
May 6 at 3:44




$begingroup$
The constant function $f(t) = 1$ is a counterexample to the stronger inequality, taking any $x < 1$.
$endgroup$
– Theo Bendit
May 6 at 3:44




1




1




$begingroup$
Wow, I did not realize this. Should have examined it a little more closely, thanks.
$endgroup$
– onesix
May 6 at 3:50




$begingroup$
Wow, I did not realize this. Should have examined it a little more closely, thanks.
$endgroup$
– onesix
May 6 at 3:50










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















8












$begingroup$

$int_0^1|f(t)| dt$ is the average of $|f(t)|$ in the interval, and $int_0^1|f'(t)|dt$ is the total variation of $f(t)$, if you think about this, it makes sense. By MVT, you have that $$int_0^1|f(t)| dt=|f(a)|$$ for some $ain[0,1]$. Let $xin[0,1]$, WLOG say $x>a$, then beginalign*|f(x)|&leq |f(a)|+|f(x)-f(a)|\
&=int_0^1|f(t)|dt+|int_a^xf'(t)dt|\
&leq int_0^1|f(t)|dt+int_a^x|f'(t)|dt\
&leqint_0^1|f(t)|dt+int_0^1|f'(t)|dt
endalign*






share|cite|improve this answer









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    1 Answer
    1






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    active

    oldest

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    8












    $begingroup$

    $int_0^1|f(t)| dt$ is the average of $|f(t)|$ in the interval, and $int_0^1|f'(t)|dt$ is the total variation of $f(t)$, if you think about this, it makes sense. By MVT, you have that $$int_0^1|f(t)| dt=|f(a)|$$ for some $ain[0,1]$. Let $xin[0,1]$, WLOG say $x>a$, then beginalign*|f(x)|&leq |f(a)|+|f(x)-f(a)|\
    &=int_0^1|f(t)|dt+|int_a^xf'(t)dt|\
    &leq int_0^1|f(t)|dt+int_a^x|f'(t)|dt\
    &leqint_0^1|f(t)|dt+int_0^1|f'(t)|dt
    endalign*






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      8












      $begingroup$

      $int_0^1|f(t)| dt$ is the average of $|f(t)|$ in the interval, and $int_0^1|f'(t)|dt$ is the total variation of $f(t)$, if you think about this, it makes sense. By MVT, you have that $$int_0^1|f(t)| dt=|f(a)|$$ for some $ain[0,1]$. Let $xin[0,1]$, WLOG say $x>a$, then beginalign*|f(x)|&leq |f(a)|+|f(x)-f(a)|\
      &=int_0^1|f(t)|dt+|int_a^xf'(t)dt|\
      &leq int_0^1|f(t)|dt+int_a^x|f'(t)|dt\
      &leqint_0^1|f(t)|dt+int_0^1|f'(t)|dt
      endalign*






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        8












        8








        8





        $begingroup$

        $int_0^1|f(t)| dt$ is the average of $|f(t)|$ in the interval, and $int_0^1|f'(t)|dt$ is the total variation of $f(t)$, if you think about this, it makes sense. By MVT, you have that $$int_0^1|f(t)| dt=|f(a)|$$ for some $ain[0,1]$. Let $xin[0,1]$, WLOG say $x>a$, then beginalign*|f(x)|&leq |f(a)|+|f(x)-f(a)|\
        &=int_0^1|f(t)|dt+|int_a^xf'(t)dt|\
        &leq int_0^1|f(t)|dt+int_a^x|f'(t)|dt\
        &leqint_0^1|f(t)|dt+int_0^1|f'(t)|dt
        endalign*






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        $int_0^1|f(t)| dt$ is the average of $|f(t)|$ in the interval, and $int_0^1|f'(t)|dt$ is the total variation of $f(t)$, if you think about this, it makes sense. By MVT, you have that $$int_0^1|f(t)| dt=|f(a)|$$ for some $ain[0,1]$. Let $xin[0,1]$, WLOG say $x>a$, then beginalign*|f(x)|&leq |f(a)|+|f(x)-f(a)|\
        &=int_0^1|f(t)|dt+|int_a^xf'(t)dt|\
        &leq int_0^1|f(t)|dt+int_a^x|f'(t)|dt\
        &leqint_0^1|f(t)|dt+int_0^1|f'(t)|dt
        endalign*







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered May 6 at 4:59









        Julian MejiaJulian Mejia

        2,195314




        2,195314



























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