Can you compute $int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx$ more precisely than $1.20206$ and do a comparision with $zeta(3)$?Double integral involving zeta function: $int_0^infty frac1-12y^2(1+4y^2)^3int_1/2^inftylog|zeta(x+iy)|~dx ~dy.$Integral $int_0^1fraclog(x)log^2(1-x)log^2(1+x)xmathrm dx$Can be justified this $zeta(3)=int_0^1frac1xsum_n=0^inftyfracx^(n+1)^3/2(n+1)^3/2dx$?On the change $u=x^1+frac1p_n$ in $log zeta(s)=sint_0^inftyfracpi(x)x(x^s-1)dx$, where $p_n$ is the nth prime numberIs there a simple proof for $int_1^inftyfrac2x^2log^2 x(x^2-1)^2dx=frac14(7zeta(3)+pi^2)$?Evaluate $int_0^1 fraclog(1-z)log(1-z^3)z^2dz$Value of the integral $int_0^2pi log|re^it-zeta| dt$Calculate an approximation of $int_0^1int_0^1fraclog(xy)xy-1+log(xy)dxdy$On $int_0^1fraclog^2(x)1+x^3dx$ and $zeta(3)$What's about $-int_0^1fraclog(1+x^10)log xxdx$?
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Can you compute $int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx$ more precisely than $1.20206$ and do a comparision with $zeta(3)$?
Double integral involving zeta function: $int_0^infty frac1-12y^2(1+4y^2)^3int_1/2^inftylog|zeta(x+iy)|~dx ~dy.$Integral $int_0^1fraclog(x)log^2(1-x)log^2(1+x)xmathrm dx$Can be justified this $zeta(3)=int_0^1frac1xsum_n=0^inftyfracx^(n+1)^3/2(n+1)^3/2dx$?On the change $u=x^1+frac1p_n$ in $log zeta(s)=sint_0^inftyfracpi(x)x(x^s-1)dx$, where $p_n$ is the nth prime numberIs there a simple proof for $int_1^inftyfrac2x^2log^2 x(x^2-1)^2dx=frac14(7zeta(3)+pi^2)$?Evaluate $int_0^1 fraclog(1-z)log(1-z^3)z^2dz$Value of the integral $int_0^2pi log|re^it-zeta| dt$Calculate an approximation of $int_0^1int_0^1fraclog(xy)xy-1+log(xy)dxdy$On $int_0^1fraclog^2(x)1+x^3dx$ and $zeta(3)$What's about $-int_0^1fraclog(1+x^10)log xxdx$?
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I know from Wolfram Alpha that $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=1.20206$$ and in the other hand, too from this online tool that
$$intfraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=mathrmLi_3(x)-mathrmLi_2(x)log(x)+constant.$$
Question. I would like made a comparision, and need obtain $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx,$$
more precisely than $1.20206$. I believe that could be $zeta(3)$, but now I don't sure, and I don't know if holding this claim could be deduce easily.
Can you compute $int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx$ more precisely than $1.20206$ to discard that this value is $zeta(3)$, Apéry constant, or claim that the equality $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=zeta(3)$$ holds and is known/easily deduced (perhaps from some of its known formulas involving integrals)?
This definite integral was computed as a summand, when I made some changes of variable in Beuker's integral (see [1]), and now i don't know if too I could be wrong in my computations.
I've searched in this site about this integral $intfraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx$, and in Wikipedia about a possible identity between $zeta(3)$ and particular values of logarithmic integrals $mathrmLi_2(x)$ and $mathrmLi_3(x)$.
References:
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ap%C3%A9ry%27s_constant
reference-request definite-integrals logarithms improper-integrals online-resources
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add a comment |
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I know from Wolfram Alpha that $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=1.20206$$ and in the other hand, too from this online tool that
$$intfraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=mathrmLi_3(x)-mathrmLi_2(x)log(x)+constant.$$
Question. I would like made a comparision, and need obtain $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx,$$
more precisely than $1.20206$. I believe that could be $zeta(3)$, but now I don't sure, and I don't know if holding this claim could be deduce easily.
Can you compute $int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx$ more precisely than $1.20206$ to discard that this value is $zeta(3)$, Apéry constant, or claim that the equality $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=zeta(3)$$ holds and is known/easily deduced (perhaps from some of its known formulas involving integrals)?
This definite integral was computed as a summand, when I made some changes of variable in Beuker's integral (see [1]), and now i don't know if too I could be wrong in my computations.
I've searched in this site about this integral $intfraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx$, and in Wikipedia about a possible identity between $zeta(3)$ and particular values of logarithmic integrals $mathrmLi_2(x)$ and $mathrmLi_3(x)$.
References:
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ap%C3%A9ry%27s_constant
reference-request definite-integrals logarithms improper-integrals online-resources
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My changes from Beukers integral (see Refereces) to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense, and there are no mistakes. Too I am assuming that this way is know. Very thanks much all users.
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– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:55
1
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Did you try expanding $ln(1-x)$?
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– Clayton
Apr 26 at 19:37
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Taylor series ... expand $ln(1-x)$ in terms of powers of $x$.
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– GEdgar
Apr 26 at 19:41
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Seems like taylor series then by parts is the best way forward here
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– George Dewhirst
Apr 26 at 20:07
add a comment |
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I know from Wolfram Alpha that $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=1.20206$$ and in the other hand, too from this online tool that
$$intfraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=mathrmLi_3(x)-mathrmLi_2(x)log(x)+constant.$$
Question. I would like made a comparision, and need obtain $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx,$$
more precisely than $1.20206$. I believe that could be $zeta(3)$, but now I don't sure, and I don't know if holding this claim could be deduce easily.
Can you compute $int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx$ more precisely than $1.20206$ to discard that this value is $zeta(3)$, Apéry constant, or claim that the equality $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=zeta(3)$$ holds and is known/easily deduced (perhaps from some of its known formulas involving integrals)?
This definite integral was computed as a summand, when I made some changes of variable in Beuker's integral (see [1]), and now i don't know if too I could be wrong in my computations.
I've searched in this site about this integral $intfraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx$, and in Wikipedia about a possible identity between $zeta(3)$ and particular values of logarithmic integrals $mathrmLi_2(x)$ and $mathrmLi_3(x)$.
References:
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ap%C3%A9ry%27s_constant
reference-request definite-integrals logarithms improper-integrals online-resources
$endgroup$
I know from Wolfram Alpha that $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=1.20206$$ and in the other hand, too from this online tool that
$$intfraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=mathrmLi_3(x)-mathrmLi_2(x)log(x)+constant.$$
Question. I would like made a comparision, and need obtain $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx,$$
more precisely than $1.20206$. I believe that could be $zeta(3)$, but now I don't sure, and I don't know if holding this claim could be deduce easily.
Can you compute $int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx$ more precisely than $1.20206$ to discard that this value is $zeta(3)$, Apéry constant, or claim that the equality $$int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx=zeta(3)$$ holds and is known/easily deduced (perhaps from some of its known formulas involving integrals)?
This definite integral was computed as a summand, when I made some changes of variable in Beuker's integral (see [1]), and now i don't know if too I could be wrong in my computations.
I've searched in this site about this integral $intfraclog(x)log(1-x)xdx$, and in Wikipedia about a possible identity between $zeta(3)$ and particular values of logarithmic integrals $mathrmLi_2(x)$ and $mathrmLi_3(x)$.
References:
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ap%C3%A9ry%27s_constant
reference-request definite-integrals logarithms improper-integrals online-resources
reference-request definite-integrals logarithms improper-integrals online-resources
edited Mar 25 '16 at 8:37
wythagoras
21.7k446104
21.7k446104
asked Dec 18 '15 at 18:21
user243301
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My changes from Beukers integral (see Refereces) to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense, and there are no mistakes. Too I am assuming that this way is know. Very thanks much all users.
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– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:55
1
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Did you try expanding $ln(1-x)$?
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– Clayton
Apr 26 at 19:37
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Taylor series ... expand $ln(1-x)$ in terms of powers of $x$.
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– GEdgar
Apr 26 at 19:41
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Seems like taylor series then by parts is the best way forward here
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– George Dewhirst
Apr 26 at 20:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
My changes from Beukers integral (see Refereces) to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense, and there are no mistakes. Too I am assuming that this way is know. Very thanks much all users.
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– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:55
1
$begingroup$
Did you try expanding $ln(1-x)$?
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– Clayton
Apr 26 at 19:37
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Taylor series ... expand $ln(1-x)$ in terms of powers of $x$.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Apr 26 at 19:41
$begingroup$
Seems like taylor series then by parts is the best way forward here
$endgroup$
– George Dewhirst
Apr 26 at 20:07
$begingroup$
My changes from Beukers integral (see Refereces) to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense, and there are no mistakes. Too I am assuming that this way is know. Very thanks much all users.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:55
$begingroup$
My changes from Beukers integral (see Refereces) to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense, and there are no mistakes. Too I am assuming that this way is know. Very thanks much all users.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:55
1
1
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Did you try expanding $ln(1-x)$?
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– Clayton
Apr 26 at 19:37
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Did you try expanding $ln(1-x)$?
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– Clayton
Apr 26 at 19:37
$begingroup$
Taylor series ... expand $ln(1-x)$ in terms of powers of $x$.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Apr 26 at 19:41
$begingroup$
Taylor series ... expand $ln(1-x)$ in terms of powers of $x$.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Apr 26 at 19:41
$begingroup$
Seems like taylor series then by parts is the best way forward here
$endgroup$
– George Dewhirst
Apr 26 at 20:07
$begingroup$
Seems like taylor series then by parts is the best way forward here
$endgroup$
– George Dewhirst
Apr 26 at 20:07
add a comment |
7 Answers
7
active
oldest
votes
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$$operatornameLi_s(z) = sum_k=1^infty z^k over k^s = z + z^2 over 2^s + z^3 over 3^s + cdots ,.$$
Therefore, since $log(1)=0$, we have:
$$operatornameLi_3(1) = sum_k=1^infty 1 over k^3 = zeta(3)$$
$$operatornameLi_3(1)-log(1)operatornameLi_2(1) = zeta(3)$$
It remains to show that $$lim_xto0 operatornameLi_3(x)-log(x)operatornameLi_2(x)=0$$
Note that if $z<1$,
$$operatornameLi_2(z) = sum_k=1^infty z^k over k^2 = z + z^2 over 2^2 + z^3 over 3^2 + cdots \< z + z over 2^2 + z over 2^2+ z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 8^2+cdots leq zsum_k=0^infty 1 over 2^k = 2z$$
Since $log(z)<z$, for $z>1$, we also have $log(z^2)<2z$ thus $log(x)<2sqrtx$. Thus $log(frac1x)>-2sqrtx$, thus $log(u)>-2sqrtfrac1u$, thus $0>log(u)operatornameLi_2(u)>-2sqrtu$.
We may use the Squeeze Theorem to finish the result.
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Then I understand is a bad question, since is easy to compute the limit (I will try it) too I will try don't make more bad questions. Very thanks much @wythagoras. Now I don't know how comute the limit, but I will try it.
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– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:33
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Very thanks for details @wythagoras
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– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:43
add a comment |
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There is a variety of possibilities how to show that this integral indeed equals $zeta(3)$, i.e. Apéry's Constant. I would like to show some of them
I: Taylor Series Expansion of $log(1-x)$
As it was first suggested within the comments (and done by FDP) we may expand the $log(1-x)$ term as Taylor Series. Specifically, by using the MacLaurin Series of the aforementioned logarithm we obtain
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=int_0^1fraclog(x)xleft[-sum_n=1^inftyfracx^nnright]mathrm dx\
&=-sum_n=1^inftyfrac1nint_0^1x^n-1log(x)mathrm dx\
&=-sum_n=1^inftyfrac1nleft[-frac1n^2right]\
&=sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
This might be the most straightforward approach possible.
II: Integration By Parts
Choosing $u=log(1-x)$ and $mathrm dv=fraclog(x)x$ we can apply Integration By Parts which gives
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)x&=underbraceleft[log(1-x)fraclog^2(x)2right]_0^1_to0+frac12int_0^1fraclog^2(x)1-xmathrm dx\
&=frac12int_0^1log^2(x)left[sum_n=0^infty x^nright]mathrm dx\
&=frac12sum_n=0^inftyint_0^1x^nlog^2(x)mathrm dx\
&=frac12sum_n=0^inftyleft[frac2(n+1)^3right]\
&=sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
Again, we utilized a series expansion, this time the one of the geometric series.
III: Integral Representation of the Zeta Function
To use the Integral Representation of the Zeta Function here we need to reshape the integral a little bit. Starting with substitution $log(x)mapsto -x$ followed by Integration By Parts again we find
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=-int_infty^0(-x)log(1-e^-x)mathrm dx\
&=-int_0^infty xlog(1-e^-x)mathrm dx\
&=underbraceleft[fracx^22log(1-e^-x)right]_0^infty_to0+frac12int_0^inftyfracx^21-e^-xe^-xmathrm dx\
&=frac1Gamma(3)int_0^inftyfracx^3-1e^x-1mathrm dx\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
Overall this is more or less the same as the second approach, but I wanted to bring the integral representation into play. While this approach seems to omit the usage of a series representation we need it actually in order to prove the here used representation for the Zeta Function.
IV: The Trilogarithm $operatornameLi_3(1)$
Similiar to the second approach we may chose Integration By Parts as suitable technique but instead we will apply it with $u=log(x)$ and $mathrm dv=fraclog(1-x)x$ to get
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=underbraceleft[log(x)(-operatornameLi_2(x))right]_0^1_to0+int_0^1fracoperatornameLi_2(x)xmathrm dx\
&=[operatornameLi_3(x)]_0^1\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
A quick look at the series representation of the Trilogarithm verifies the last line.
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Hey, that's nicely done, but you took them all 😒.
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– Number
Apr 27 at 6:29
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@Zacky Thank you! I'm sorry, but I couldn't resist^^
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– mrtaurho
Apr 27 at 7:37
add a comment |
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beginalignJ&=int_0^1 fracln(1-x)ln xx dx\
&=-int_0^1 left(sum_n=1^infty fracx^n-1nright)ln x,dx\
&=-sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^1 x^n-1ln x,dx\
&=sum_n=1^infty frac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign
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add a comment |
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An informal argument: $$log (1-x) = - sum_k=0^infty fracx^k+1k+1, quad |x| < 1.$$ Then $$fraclog x log(1-x)x = -sum_k=0^infty fracx^k log xk+1,$$ and integrating term by term gives $$int_x=0^1 x^k log x , dx = left[ fracx^k+1 log xk+1 right]_x=0^1 - int_x=0^1 fracx^kk+1 , dx = - frac1(k+1)^2.$$ Therefore, $$int_x=0^1 fraclog x log(1-x)x , dx = sum_k=1^infty frac1k^3 = zeta(3).$$
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Very thanks much @heropup
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– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:34
1
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May I ask what is so informal about this solution?
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– GohP.iHan
Jan 1 '16 at 7:48
add a comment |
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$newcommandbbx[1],bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]displaystyle#1,
newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
newcommandddmathrmd
newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
newcommandicmathrmi
newcommandmc[1]mathcal#1
newcommandmrm[1]mathrm#1
newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
newcommandpartiald[3][]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
newcommandroot[2][],sqrt[#1],#2,,
newcommandtotald[3][]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$
You can add this "weird" answer to the excellent
$texttt@mrtaurho$ long list:
beginalign
&bbox[10px,#ffd]%
int_0^1lnpars1 - xlnparsx over x,dd x =
left.partial^2 over partialmu,partialnuint_0^1
brackspars1 - x^mu - 1x^nu over x,dd x,rightvert_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubracks%
int_0^1x^nu - 1pars1 - x^mu,dd x -
int_0^1x^nu - 1,dd x
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubracks%
GammaparsnuGammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1 - 1 over nu
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubraces1 over nubracks%
Gammaparsnu + 1Gammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1 - 1
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
1 over 2,partiald[2]nubracesGammaparsnu + 1
partialdmubracksGammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
1 over 2,partiald[2]nubracesGammaparsnu + 1
bracks-,gamma + Psiparsnu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + 1 _ nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
-,1 over 2,Psi,''pars1 = bbxzetapars3
endalign
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add a comment |
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Let $x = e^-y$, we have
$$int_0^1 fraclog xlog(1-x)x dx
= int_0^1 frac(-log x)x sum_n=1^infty fracx^nn dx
= sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^1 (-log x) x^n-1 dx\
= sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^infty y e^-ny dy
= sum_n=1^infty frac1n^3
= zeta(3)
$$
Please note that we can switch the order of summation and integration because all the individual terms are non-negative.
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Very thanks much @achillehui incredible. I take notes from your solution.
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– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:37
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@achillehui Are you exploiting Fubini-Tonelli with the counting measure on $mathbbN$ and Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ to justify interchanging the series and integration?
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– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 2:56
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@Dr.MV the last phrase "because all the individual terms are non-negative" is essentially Tonelli theorem.
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– achille hui
Mar 20 '17 at 4:05
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@achillehui Yes, I know. So, you are exploiting it then?
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– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 4:19
add a comment |
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The Beta function and Feynman's trick are another way to go:
$$I=int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)x,dx =left.fracpartial^2partial a partial bint_0^1x^a-1(1-x)^b,dx,right|_alpha,beta=0^+tag1 $$
hence:
$$ I = left.fracpartial^2partial a partial bfracGamma(a)Gamma(b+1)Gamma(a+b+1),right|_alpha,beta=0^+tag2 $$
and by exploiting $Gamma'(z) = Gamma(z)cdotpsi(z)$ we get:
$$ I = -frac12psi''(2)=sum_ngeq 0frac1(n+1)^3=colorredzeta(3)tag3 $$
as wanted.
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I try understand your contribution too, now I am saturated. My changes to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense. Very thanks much @JackD'Aurizio.
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– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:54
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
$$operatornameLi_s(z) = sum_k=1^infty z^k over k^s = z + z^2 over 2^s + z^3 over 3^s + cdots ,.$$
Therefore, since $log(1)=0$, we have:
$$operatornameLi_3(1) = sum_k=1^infty 1 over k^3 = zeta(3)$$
$$operatornameLi_3(1)-log(1)operatornameLi_2(1) = zeta(3)$$
It remains to show that $$lim_xto0 operatornameLi_3(x)-log(x)operatornameLi_2(x)=0$$
Note that if $z<1$,
$$operatornameLi_2(z) = sum_k=1^infty z^k over k^2 = z + z^2 over 2^2 + z^3 over 3^2 + cdots \< z + z over 2^2 + z over 2^2+ z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 8^2+cdots leq zsum_k=0^infty 1 over 2^k = 2z$$
Since $log(z)<z$, for $z>1$, we also have $log(z^2)<2z$ thus $log(x)<2sqrtx$. Thus $log(frac1x)>-2sqrtx$, thus $log(u)>-2sqrtfrac1u$, thus $0>log(u)operatornameLi_2(u)>-2sqrtu$.
We may use the Squeeze Theorem to finish the result.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Then I understand is a bad question, since is easy to compute the limit (I will try it) too I will try don't make more bad questions. Very thanks much @wythagoras. Now I don't know how comute the limit, but I will try it.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Very thanks for details @wythagoras
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$operatornameLi_s(z) = sum_k=1^infty z^k over k^s = z + z^2 over 2^s + z^3 over 3^s + cdots ,.$$
Therefore, since $log(1)=0$, we have:
$$operatornameLi_3(1) = sum_k=1^infty 1 over k^3 = zeta(3)$$
$$operatornameLi_3(1)-log(1)operatornameLi_2(1) = zeta(3)$$
It remains to show that $$lim_xto0 operatornameLi_3(x)-log(x)operatornameLi_2(x)=0$$
Note that if $z<1$,
$$operatornameLi_2(z) = sum_k=1^infty z^k over k^2 = z + z^2 over 2^2 + z^3 over 3^2 + cdots \< z + z over 2^2 + z over 2^2+ z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 8^2+cdots leq zsum_k=0^infty 1 over 2^k = 2z$$
Since $log(z)<z$, for $z>1$, we also have $log(z^2)<2z$ thus $log(x)<2sqrtx$. Thus $log(frac1x)>-2sqrtx$, thus $log(u)>-2sqrtfrac1u$, thus $0>log(u)operatornameLi_2(u)>-2sqrtu$.
We may use the Squeeze Theorem to finish the result.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Then I understand is a bad question, since is easy to compute the limit (I will try it) too I will try don't make more bad questions. Very thanks much @wythagoras. Now I don't know how comute the limit, but I will try it.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Very thanks for details @wythagoras
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$operatornameLi_s(z) = sum_k=1^infty z^k over k^s = z + z^2 over 2^s + z^3 over 3^s + cdots ,.$$
Therefore, since $log(1)=0$, we have:
$$operatornameLi_3(1) = sum_k=1^infty 1 over k^3 = zeta(3)$$
$$operatornameLi_3(1)-log(1)operatornameLi_2(1) = zeta(3)$$
It remains to show that $$lim_xto0 operatornameLi_3(x)-log(x)operatornameLi_2(x)=0$$
Note that if $z<1$,
$$operatornameLi_2(z) = sum_k=1^infty z^k over k^2 = z + z^2 over 2^2 + z^3 over 3^2 + cdots \< z + z over 2^2 + z over 2^2+ z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 8^2+cdots leq zsum_k=0^infty 1 over 2^k = 2z$$
Since $log(z)<z$, for $z>1$, we also have $log(z^2)<2z$ thus $log(x)<2sqrtx$. Thus $log(frac1x)>-2sqrtx$, thus $log(u)>-2sqrtfrac1u$, thus $0>log(u)operatornameLi_2(u)>-2sqrtu$.
We may use the Squeeze Theorem to finish the result.
$endgroup$
$$operatornameLi_s(z) = sum_k=1^infty z^k over k^s = z + z^2 over 2^s + z^3 over 3^s + cdots ,.$$
Therefore, since $log(1)=0$, we have:
$$operatornameLi_3(1) = sum_k=1^infty 1 over k^3 = zeta(3)$$
$$operatornameLi_3(1)-log(1)operatornameLi_2(1) = zeta(3)$$
It remains to show that $$lim_xto0 operatornameLi_3(x)-log(x)operatornameLi_2(x)=0$$
Note that if $z<1$,
$$operatornameLi_2(z) = sum_k=1^infty z^k over k^2 = z + z^2 over 2^2 + z^3 over 3^2 + cdots \< z + z over 2^2 + z over 2^2+ z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 4^2 + z over 8^2+cdots leq zsum_k=0^infty 1 over 2^k = 2z$$
Since $log(z)<z$, for $z>1$, we also have $log(z^2)<2z$ thus $log(x)<2sqrtx$. Thus $log(frac1x)>-2sqrtx$, thus $log(u)>-2sqrtfrac1u$, thus $0>log(u)operatornameLi_2(u)>-2sqrtu$.
We may use the Squeeze Theorem to finish the result.
edited Dec 18 '15 at 18:42
answered Dec 18 '15 at 18:29
wythagoraswythagoras
21.7k446104
21.7k446104
$begingroup$
Then I understand is a bad question, since is easy to compute the limit (I will try it) too I will try don't make more bad questions. Very thanks much @wythagoras. Now I don't know how comute the limit, but I will try it.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Very thanks for details @wythagoras
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Then I understand is a bad question, since is easy to compute the limit (I will try it) too I will try don't make more bad questions. Very thanks much @wythagoras. Now I don't know how comute the limit, but I will try it.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Very thanks for details @wythagoras
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:43
$begingroup$
Then I understand is a bad question, since is easy to compute the limit (I will try it) too I will try don't make more bad questions. Very thanks much @wythagoras. Now I don't know how comute the limit, but I will try it.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Then I understand is a bad question, since is easy to compute the limit (I will try it) too I will try don't make more bad questions. Very thanks much @wythagoras. Now I don't know how comute the limit, but I will try it.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Very thanks for details @wythagoras
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:43
$begingroup$
Very thanks for details @wythagoras
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There is a variety of possibilities how to show that this integral indeed equals $zeta(3)$, i.e. Apéry's Constant. I would like to show some of them
I: Taylor Series Expansion of $log(1-x)$
As it was first suggested within the comments (and done by FDP) we may expand the $log(1-x)$ term as Taylor Series. Specifically, by using the MacLaurin Series of the aforementioned logarithm we obtain
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=int_0^1fraclog(x)xleft[-sum_n=1^inftyfracx^nnright]mathrm dx\
&=-sum_n=1^inftyfrac1nint_0^1x^n-1log(x)mathrm dx\
&=-sum_n=1^inftyfrac1nleft[-frac1n^2right]\
&=sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
This might be the most straightforward approach possible.
II: Integration By Parts
Choosing $u=log(1-x)$ and $mathrm dv=fraclog(x)x$ we can apply Integration By Parts which gives
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)x&=underbraceleft[log(1-x)fraclog^2(x)2right]_0^1_to0+frac12int_0^1fraclog^2(x)1-xmathrm dx\
&=frac12int_0^1log^2(x)left[sum_n=0^infty x^nright]mathrm dx\
&=frac12sum_n=0^inftyint_0^1x^nlog^2(x)mathrm dx\
&=frac12sum_n=0^inftyleft[frac2(n+1)^3right]\
&=sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
Again, we utilized a series expansion, this time the one of the geometric series.
III: Integral Representation of the Zeta Function
To use the Integral Representation of the Zeta Function here we need to reshape the integral a little bit. Starting with substitution $log(x)mapsto -x$ followed by Integration By Parts again we find
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=-int_infty^0(-x)log(1-e^-x)mathrm dx\
&=-int_0^infty xlog(1-e^-x)mathrm dx\
&=underbraceleft[fracx^22log(1-e^-x)right]_0^infty_to0+frac12int_0^inftyfracx^21-e^-xe^-xmathrm dx\
&=frac1Gamma(3)int_0^inftyfracx^3-1e^x-1mathrm dx\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
Overall this is more or less the same as the second approach, but I wanted to bring the integral representation into play. While this approach seems to omit the usage of a series representation we need it actually in order to prove the here used representation for the Zeta Function.
IV: The Trilogarithm $operatornameLi_3(1)$
Similiar to the second approach we may chose Integration By Parts as suitable technique but instead we will apply it with $u=log(x)$ and $mathrm dv=fraclog(1-x)x$ to get
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=underbraceleft[log(x)(-operatornameLi_2(x))right]_0^1_to0+int_0^1fracoperatornameLi_2(x)xmathrm dx\
&=[operatornameLi_3(x)]_0^1\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
A quick look at the series representation of the Trilogarithm verifies the last line.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hey, that's nicely done, but you took them all 😒.
$endgroup$
– Number
Apr 27 at 6:29
$begingroup$
@Zacky Thank you! I'm sorry, but I couldn't resist^^
$endgroup$
– mrtaurho
Apr 27 at 7:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There is a variety of possibilities how to show that this integral indeed equals $zeta(3)$, i.e. Apéry's Constant. I would like to show some of them
I: Taylor Series Expansion of $log(1-x)$
As it was first suggested within the comments (and done by FDP) we may expand the $log(1-x)$ term as Taylor Series. Specifically, by using the MacLaurin Series of the aforementioned logarithm we obtain
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=int_0^1fraclog(x)xleft[-sum_n=1^inftyfracx^nnright]mathrm dx\
&=-sum_n=1^inftyfrac1nint_0^1x^n-1log(x)mathrm dx\
&=-sum_n=1^inftyfrac1nleft[-frac1n^2right]\
&=sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
This might be the most straightforward approach possible.
II: Integration By Parts
Choosing $u=log(1-x)$ and $mathrm dv=fraclog(x)x$ we can apply Integration By Parts which gives
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)x&=underbraceleft[log(1-x)fraclog^2(x)2right]_0^1_to0+frac12int_0^1fraclog^2(x)1-xmathrm dx\
&=frac12int_0^1log^2(x)left[sum_n=0^infty x^nright]mathrm dx\
&=frac12sum_n=0^inftyint_0^1x^nlog^2(x)mathrm dx\
&=frac12sum_n=0^inftyleft[frac2(n+1)^3right]\
&=sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
Again, we utilized a series expansion, this time the one of the geometric series.
III: Integral Representation of the Zeta Function
To use the Integral Representation of the Zeta Function here we need to reshape the integral a little bit. Starting with substitution $log(x)mapsto -x$ followed by Integration By Parts again we find
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=-int_infty^0(-x)log(1-e^-x)mathrm dx\
&=-int_0^infty xlog(1-e^-x)mathrm dx\
&=underbraceleft[fracx^22log(1-e^-x)right]_0^infty_to0+frac12int_0^inftyfracx^21-e^-xe^-xmathrm dx\
&=frac1Gamma(3)int_0^inftyfracx^3-1e^x-1mathrm dx\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
Overall this is more or less the same as the second approach, but I wanted to bring the integral representation into play. While this approach seems to omit the usage of a series representation we need it actually in order to prove the here used representation for the Zeta Function.
IV: The Trilogarithm $operatornameLi_3(1)$
Similiar to the second approach we may chose Integration By Parts as suitable technique but instead we will apply it with $u=log(x)$ and $mathrm dv=fraclog(1-x)x$ to get
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=underbraceleft[log(x)(-operatornameLi_2(x))right]_0^1_to0+int_0^1fracoperatornameLi_2(x)xmathrm dx\
&=[operatornameLi_3(x)]_0^1\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
A quick look at the series representation of the Trilogarithm verifies the last line.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hey, that's nicely done, but you took them all 😒.
$endgroup$
– Number
Apr 27 at 6:29
$begingroup$
@Zacky Thank you! I'm sorry, but I couldn't resist^^
$endgroup$
– mrtaurho
Apr 27 at 7:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There is a variety of possibilities how to show that this integral indeed equals $zeta(3)$, i.e. Apéry's Constant. I would like to show some of them
I: Taylor Series Expansion of $log(1-x)$
As it was first suggested within the comments (and done by FDP) we may expand the $log(1-x)$ term as Taylor Series. Specifically, by using the MacLaurin Series of the aforementioned logarithm we obtain
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=int_0^1fraclog(x)xleft[-sum_n=1^inftyfracx^nnright]mathrm dx\
&=-sum_n=1^inftyfrac1nint_0^1x^n-1log(x)mathrm dx\
&=-sum_n=1^inftyfrac1nleft[-frac1n^2right]\
&=sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
This might be the most straightforward approach possible.
II: Integration By Parts
Choosing $u=log(1-x)$ and $mathrm dv=fraclog(x)x$ we can apply Integration By Parts which gives
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)x&=underbraceleft[log(1-x)fraclog^2(x)2right]_0^1_to0+frac12int_0^1fraclog^2(x)1-xmathrm dx\
&=frac12int_0^1log^2(x)left[sum_n=0^infty x^nright]mathrm dx\
&=frac12sum_n=0^inftyint_0^1x^nlog^2(x)mathrm dx\
&=frac12sum_n=0^inftyleft[frac2(n+1)^3right]\
&=sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
Again, we utilized a series expansion, this time the one of the geometric series.
III: Integral Representation of the Zeta Function
To use the Integral Representation of the Zeta Function here we need to reshape the integral a little bit. Starting with substitution $log(x)mapsto -x$ followed by Integration By Parts again we find
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=-int_infty^0(-x)log(1-e^-x)mathrm dx\
&=-int_0^infty xlog(1-e^-x)mathrm dx\
&=underbraceleft[fracx^22log(1-e^-x)right]_0^infty_to0+frac12int_0^inftyfracx^21-e^-xe^-xmathrm dx\
&=frac1Gamma(3)int_0^inftyfracx^3-1e^x-1mathrm dx\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
Overall this is more or less the same as the second approach, but I wanted to bring the integral representation into play. While this approach seems to omit the usage of a series representation we need it actually in order to prove the here used representation for the Zeta Function.
IV: The Trilogarithm $operatornameLi_3(1)$
Similiar to the second approach we may chose Integration By Parts as suitable technique but instead we will apply it with $u=log(x)$ and $mathrm dv=fraclog(1-x)x$ to get
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=underbraceleft[log(x)(-operatornameLi_2(x))right]_0^1_to0+int_0^1fracoperatornameLi_2(x)xmathrm dx\
&=[operatornameLi_3(x)]_0^1\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
A quick look at the series representation of the Trilogarithm verifies the last line.
$endgroup$
There is a variety of possibilities how to show that this integral indeed equals $zeta(3)$, i.e. Apéry's Constant. I would like to show some of them
I: Taylor Series Expansion of $log(1-x)$
As it was first suggested within the comments (and done by FDP) we may expand the $log(1-x)$ term as Taylor Series. Specifically, by using the MacLaurin Series of the aforementioned logarithm we obtain
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=int_0^1fraclog(x)xleft[-sum_n=1^inftyfracx^nnright]mathrm dx\
&=-sum_n=1^inftyfrac1nint_0^1x^n-1log(x)mathrm dx\
&=-sum_n=1^inftyfrac1nleft[-frac1n^2right]\
&=sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
This might be the most straightforward approach possible.
II: Integration By Parts
Choosing $u=log(1-x)$ and $mathrm dv=fraclog(x)x$ we can apply Integration By Parts which gives
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)x&=underbraceleft[log(1-x)fraclog^2(x)2right]_0^1_to0+frac12int_0^1fraclog^2(x)1-xmathrm dx\
&=frac12int_0^1log^2(x)left[sum_n=0^infty x^nright]mathrm dx\
&=frac12sum_n=0^inftyint_0^1x^nlog^2(x)mathrm dx\
&=frac12sum_n=0^inftyleft[frac2(n+1)^3right]\
&=sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
Again, we utilized a series expansion, this time the one of the geometric series.
III: Integral Representation of the Zeta Function
To use the Integral Representation of the Zeta Function here we need to reshape the integral a little bit. Starting with substitution $log(x)mapsto -x$ followed by Integration By Parts again we find
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=-int_infty^0(-x)log(1-e^-x)mathrm dx\
&=-int_0^infty xlog(1-e^-x)mathrm dx\
&=underbraceleft[fracx^22log(1-e^-x)right]_0^infty_to0+frac12int_0^inftyfracx^21-e^-xe^-xmathrm dx\
&=frac1Gamma(3)int_0^inftyfracx^3-1e^x-1mathrm dx\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
Overall this is more or less the same as the second approach, but I wanted to bring the integral representation into play. While this approach seems to omit the usage of a series representation we need it actually in order to prove the here used representation for the Zeta Function.
IV: The Trilogarithm $operatornameLi_3(1)$
Similiar to the second approach we may chose Integration By Parts as suitable technique but instead we will apply it with $u=log(x)$ and $mathrm dv=fraclog(1-x)x$ to get
beginalign*
int_0^1fraclog(1-x)log(x)xmathrm dx&=underbraceleft[log(x)(-operatornameLi_2(x))right]_0^1_to0+int_0^1fracoperatornameLi_2(x)xmathrm dx\
&=[operatornameLi_3(x)]_0^1\
&=zeta(3)
endalign*
A quick look at the series representation of the Trilogarithm verifies the last line.
answered Apr 26 at 20:38
mrtaurhomrtaurho
6,73071843
6,73071843
$begingroup$
Hey, that's nicely done, but you took them all 😒.
$endgroup$
– Number
Apr 27 at 6:29
$begingroup$
@Zacky Thank you! I'm sorry, but I couldn't resist^^
$endgroup$
– mrtaurho
Apr 27 at 7:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hey, that's nicely done, but you took them all 😒.
$endgroup$
– Number
Apr 27 at 6:29
$begingroup$
@Zacky Thank you! I'm sorry, but I couldn't resist^^
$endgroup$
– mrtaurho
Apr 27 at 7:37
$begingroup$
Hey, that's nicely done, but you took them all 😒.
$endgroup$
– Number
Apr 27 at 6:29
$begingroup$
Hey, that's nicely done, but you took them all 😒.
$endgroup$
– Number
Apr 27 at 6:29
$begingroup$
@Zacky Thank you! I'm sorry, but I couldn't resist
^^
$endgroup$
– mrtaurho
Apr 27 at 7:37
$begingroup$
@Zacky Thank you! I'm sorry, but I couldn't resist
^^
$endgroup$
– mrtaurho
Apr 27 at 7:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
beginalignJ&=int_0^1 fracln(1-x)ln xx dx\
&=-int_0^1 left(sum_n=1^infty fracx^n-1nright)ln x,dx\
&=-sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^1 x^n-1ln x,dx\
&=sum_n=1^infty frac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
beginalignJ&=int_0^1 fracln(1-x)ln xx dx\
&=-int_0^1 left(sum_n=1^infty fracx^n-1nright)ln x,dx\
&=-sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^1 x^n-1ln x,dx\
&=sum_n=1^infty frac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
beginalignJ&=int_0^1 fracln(1-x)ln xx dx\
&=-int_0^1 left(sum_n=1^infty fracx^n-1nright)ln x,dx\
&=-sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^1 x^n-1ln x,dx\
&=sum_n=1^infty frac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign
$endgroup$
beginalignJ&=int_0^1 fracln(1-x)ln xx dx\
&=-int_0^1 left(sum_n=1^infty fracx^n-1nright)ln x,dx\
&=-sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^1 x^n-1ln x,dx\
&=sum_n=1^infty frac1n^3\
&=zeta(3)
endalign
answered Apr 26 at 20:10
FDPFDP
6,51712031
6,51712031
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An informal argument: $$log (1-x) = - sum_k=0^infty fracx^k+1k+1, quad |x| < 1.$$ Then $$fraclog x log(1-x)x = -sum_k=0^infty fracx^k log xk+1,$$ and integrating term by term gives $$int_x=0^1 x^k log x , dx = left[ fracx^k+1 log xk+1 right]_x=0^1 - int_x=0^1 fracx^kk+1 , dx = - frac1(k+1)^2.$$ Therefore, $$int_x=0^1 fraclog x log(1-x)x , dx = sum_k=1^infty frac1k^3 = zeta(3).$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @heropup
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:34
1
$begingroup$
May I ask what is so informal about this solution?
$endgroup$
– GohP.iHan
Jan 1 '16 at 7:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An informal argument: $$log (1-x) = - sum_k=0^infty fracx^k+1k+1, quad |x| < 1.$$ Then $$fraclog x log(1-x)x = -sum_k=0^infty fracx^k log xk+1,$$ and integrating term by term gives $$int_x=0^1 x^k log x , dx = left[ fracx^k+1 log xk+1 right]_x=0^1 - int_x=0^1 fracx^kk+1 , dx = - frac1(k+1)^2.$$ Therefore, $$int_x=0^1 fraclog x log(1-x)x , dx = sum_k=1^infty frac1k^3 = zeta(3).$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @heropup
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:34
1
$begingroup$
May I ask what is so informal about this solution?
$endgroup$
– GohP.iHan
Jan 1 '16 at 7:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An informal argument: $$log (1-x) = - sum_k=0^infty fracx^k+1k+1, quad |x| < 1.$$ Then $$fraclog x log(1-x)x = -sum_k=0^infty fracx^k log xk+1,$$ and integrating term by term gives $$int_x=0^1 x^k log x , dx = left[ fracx^k+1 log xk+1 right]_x=0^1 - int_x=0^1 fracx^kk+1 , dx = - frac1(k+1)^2.$$ Therefore, $$int_x=0^1 fraclog x log(1-x)x , dx = sum_k=1^infty frac1k^3 = zeta(3).$$
$endgroup$
An informal argument: $$log (1-x) = - sum_k=0^infty fracx^k+1k+1, quad |x| < 1.$$ Then $$fraclog x log(1-x)x = -sum_k=0^infty fracx^k log xk+1,$$ and integrating term by term gives $$int_x=0^1 x^k log x , dx = left[ fracx^k+1 log xk+1 right]_x=0^1 - int_x=0^1 fracx^kk+1 , dx = - frac1(k+1)^2.$$ Therefore, $$int_x=0^1 fraclog x log(1-x)x , dx = sum_k=1^infty frac1k^3 = zeta(3).$$
answered Dec 18 '15 at 18:32
heropupheropup
66.2k866104
66.2k866104
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @heropup
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:34
1
$begingroup$
May I ask what is so informal about this solution?
$endgroup$
– GohP.iHan
Jan 1 '16 at 7:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @heropup
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:34
1
$begingroup$
May I ask what is so informal about this solution?
$endgroup$
– GohP.iHan
Jan 1 '16 at 7:48
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @heropup
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:34
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @heropup
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:34
1
1
$begingroup$
May I ask what is so informal about this solution?
$endgroup$
– GohP.iHan
Jan 1 '16 at 7:48
$begingroup$
May I ask what is so informal about this solution?
$endgroup$
– GohP.iHan
Jan 1 '16 at 7:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$newcommandbbx[1],bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]displaystyle#1,
newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
newcommandddmathrmd
newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
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newcommandroot[2][],sqrt[#1],#2,,
newcommandtotald[3][]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$
You can add this "weird" answer to the excellent
$texttt@mrtaurho$ long list:
beginalign
&bbox[10px,#ffd]%
int_0^1lnpars1 - xlnparsx over x,dd x =
left.partial^2 over partialmu,partialnuint_0^1
brackspars1 - x^mu - 1x^nu over x,dd x,rightvert_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubracks%
int_0^1x^nu - 1pars1 - x^mu,dd x -
int_0^1x^nu - 1,dd x
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubracks%
GammaparsnuGammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1 - 1 over nu
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubraces1 over nubracks%
Gammaparsnu + 1Gammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1 - 1
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
1 over 2,partiald[2]nubracesGammaparsnu + 1
partialdmubracksGammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
1 over 2,partiald[2]nubracesGammaparsnu + 1
bracks-,gamma + Psiparsnu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + 1 _ nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
-,1 over 2,Psi,''pars1 = bbxzetapars3
endalign
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$newcommandbbx[1],bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]displaystyle#1,
newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
newcommandddmathrmd
newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
newcommandicmathrmi
newcommandmc[1]mathcal#1
newcommandmrm[1]mathrm#1
newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
newcommandpartiald[3][]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
newcommandroot[2][],sqrt[#1],#2,,
newcommandtotald[3][]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$
You can add this "weird" answer to the excellent
$texttt@mrtaurho$ long list:
beginalign
&bbox[10px,#ffd]%
int_0^1lnpars1 - xlnparsx over x,dd x =
left.partial^2 over partialmu,partialnuint_0^1
brackspars1 - x^mu - 1x^nu over x,dd x,rightvert_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubracks%
int_0^1x^nu - 1pars1 - x^mu,dd x -
int_0^1x^nu - 1,dd x
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubracks%
GammaparsnuGammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1 - 1 over nu
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubraces1 over nubracks%
Gammaparsnu + 1Gammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1 - 1
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
1 over 2,partiald[2]nubracesGammaparsnu + 1
partialdmubracksGammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
1 over 2,partiald[2]nubracesGammaparsnu + 1
bracks-,gamma + Psiparsnu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + 1 _ nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
-,1 over 2,Psi,''pars1 = bbxzetapars3
endalign
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$newcommandbbx[1],bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]displaystyle#1,
newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
newcommandddmathrmd
newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
newcommandicmathrmi
newcommandmc[1]mathcal#1
newcommandmrm[1]mathrm#1
newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
newcommandpartiald[3][]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
newcommandroot[2][],sqrt[#1],#2,,
newcommandtotald[3][]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$
You can add this "weird" answer to the excellent
$texttt@mrtaurho$ long list:
beginalign
&bbox[10px,#ffd]%
int_0^1lnpars1 - xlnparsx over x,dd x =
left.partial^2 over partialmu,partialnuint_0^1
brackspars1 - x^mu - 1x^nu over x,dd x,rightvert_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubracks%
int_0^1x^nu - 1pars1 - x^mu,dd x -
int_0^1x^nu - 1,dd x
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubracks%
GammaparsnuGammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1 - 1 over nu
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubraces1 over nubracks%
Gammaparsnu + 1Gammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1 - 1
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
1 over 2,partiald[2]nubracesGammaparsnu + 1
partialdmubracksGammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
1 over 2,partiald[2]nubracesGammaparsnu + 1
bracks-,gamma + Psiparsnu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + 1 _ nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
-,1 over 2,Psi,''pars1 = bbxzetapars3
endalign
$endgroup$
$newcommandbbx[1],bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]displaystyle#1,
newcommandbraces[1]leftlbrace,#1,rightrbrace
newcommandbracks[1]leftlbrack,#1,rightrbrack
newcommandddmathrmd
newcommandds[1]displaystyle#1
newcommandexpo[1],mathrme^#1,
newcommandicmathrmi
newcommandmc[1]mathcal#1
newcommandmrm[1]mathrm#1
newcommandpars[1]left(,#1,right)
newcommandpartiald[3][]fracpartial^#1 #2partial #3^#1
newcommandroot[2][],sqrt[#1],#2,,
newcommandtotald[3][]fracmathrmd^#1 #2mathrmd #3^#1
newcommandverts[1]leftvert,#1,rightvert$
You can add this "weird" answer to the excellent
$texttt@mrtaurho$ long list:
beginalign
&bbox[10px,#ffd]%
int_0^1lnpars1 - xlnparsx over x,dd x =
left.partial^2 over partialmu,partialnuint_0^1
brackspars1 - x^mu - 1x^nu over x,dd x,rightvert_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubracks%
int_0^1x^nu - 1pars1 - x^mu,dd x -
int_0^1x^nu - 1,dd x
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubracks%
GammaparsnuGammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1 - 1 over nu
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
partial^2 over partialmu,partialnubraces1 over nubracks%
Gammaparsnu + 1Gammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1 - 1
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
1 over 2,partiald[2]nubracesGammaparsnu + 1
partialdmubracksGammaparsmu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + mu + 1
_largemu = 0 atop large,,nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
1 over 2,partiald[2]nubracesGammaparsnu + 1
bracks-,gamma + Psiparsnu + 1 over
Gammaparsnu + 1 _ nu = 0^+
\[5mm] = &
-,1 over 2,Psi,''pars1 = bbxzetapars3
endalign
edited Apr 27 at 6:41
answered Apr 27 at 6:36
Felix MarinFelix Marin
69.6k7111148
69.6k7111148
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $x = e^-y$, we have
$$int_0^1 fraclog xlog(1-x)x dx
= int_0^1 frac(-log x)x sum_n=1^infty fracx^nn dx
= sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^1 (-log x) x^n-1 dx\
= sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^infty y e^-ny dy
= sum_n=1^infty frac1n^3
= zeta(3)
$$
Please note that we can switch the order of summation and integration because all the individual terms are non-negative.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @achillehui incredible. I take notes from your solution.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:37
$begingroup$
@achillehui Are you exploiting Fubini-Tonelli with the counting measure on $mathbbN$ and Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ to justify interchanging the series and integration?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 2:56
$begingroup$
@Dr.MV the last phrase "because all the individual terms are non-negative" is essentially Tonelli theorem.
$endgroup$
– achille hui
Mar 20 '17 at 4:05
$begingroup$
@achillehui Yes, I know. So, you are exploiting it then?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 4:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $x = e^-y$, we have
$$int_0^1 fraclog xlog(1-x)x dx
= int_0^1 frac(-log x)x sum_n=1^infty fracx^nn dx
= sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^1 (-log x) x^n-1 dx\
= sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^infty y e^-ny dy
= sum_n=1^infty frac1n^3
= zeta(3)
$$
Please note that we can switch the order of summation and integration because all the individual terms are non-negative.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @achillehui incredible. I take notes from your solution.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:37
$begingroup$
@achillehui Are you exploiting Fubini-Tonelli with the counting measure on $mathbbN$ and Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ to justify interchanging the series and integration?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 2:56
$begingroup$
@Dr.MV the last phrase "because all the individual terms are non-negative" is essentially Tonelli theorem.
$endgroup$
– achille hui
Mar 20 '17 at 4:05
$begingroup$
@achillehui Yes, I know. So, you are exploiting it then?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 4:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $x = e^-y$, we have
$$int_0^1 fraclog xlog(1-x)x dx
= int_0^1 frac(-log x)x sum_n=1^infty fracx^nn dx
= sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^1 (-log x) x^n-1 dx\
= sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^infty y e^-ny dy
= sum_n=1^infty frac1n^3
= zeta(3)
$$
Please note that we can switch the order of summation and integration because all the individual terms are non-negative.
$endgroup$
Let $x = e^-y$, we have
$$int_0^1 fraclog xlog(1-x)x dx
= int_0^1 frac(-log x)x sum_n=1^infty fracx^nn dx
= sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^1 (-log x) x^n-1 dx\
= sum_n=1^infty frac1nint_0^infty y e^-ny dy
= sum_n=1^infty frac1n^3
= zeta(3)
$$
Please note that we can switch the order of summation and integration because all the individual terms are non-negative.
edited Dec 18 '15 at 18:39
answered Dec 18 '15 at 18:36
achille huiachille hui
97.2k5132263
97.2k5132263
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @achillehui incredible. I take notes from your solution.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:37
$begingroup$
@achillehui Are you exploiting Fubini-Tonelli with the counting measure on $mathbbN$ and Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ to justify interchanging the series and integration?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 2:56
$begingroup$
@Dr.MV the last phrase "because all the individual terms are non-negative" is essentially Tonelli theorem.
$endgroup$
– achille hui
Mar 20 '17 at 4:05
$begingroup$
@achillehui Yes, I know. So, you are exploiting it then?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 4:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @achillehui incredible. I take notes from your solution.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:37
$begingroup$
@achillehui Are you exploiting Fubini-Tonelli with the counting measure on $mathbbN$ and Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ to justify interchanging the series and integration?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 2:56
$begingroup$
@Dr.MV the last phrase "because all the individual terms are non-negative" is essentially Tonelli theorem.
$endgroup$
– achille hui
Mar 20 '17 at 4:05
$begingroup$
@achillehui Yes, I know. So, you are exploiting it then?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 4:19
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @achillehui incredible. I take notes from your solution.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:37
$begingroup$
Very thanks much @achillehui incredible. I take notes from your solution.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:37
$begingroup$
@achillehui Are you exploiting Fubini-Tonelli with the counting measure on $mathbbN$ and Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ to justify interchanging the series and integration?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 2:56
$begingroup$
@achillehui Are you exploiting Fubini-Tonelli with the counting measure on $mathbbN$ and Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ to justify interchanging the series and integration?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 2:56
$begingroup$
@Dr.MV the last phrase "because all the individual terms are non-negative" is essentially Tonelli theorem.
$endgroup$
– achille hui
Mar 20 '17 at 4:05
$begingroup$
@Dr.MV the last phrase "because all the individual terms are non-negative" is essentially Tonelli theorem.
$endgroup$
– achille hui
Mar 20 '17 at 4:05
$begingroup$
@achillehui Yes, I know. So, you are exploiting it then?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 4:19
$begingroup$
@achillehui Yes, I know. So, you are exploiting it then?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Mar 20 '17 at 4:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Beta function and Feynman's trick are another way to go:
$$I=int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)x,dx =left.fracpartial^2partial a partial bint_0^1x^a-1(1-x)^b,dx,right|_alpha,beta=0^+tag1 $$
hence:
$$ I = left.fracpartial^2partial a partial bfracGamma(a)Gamma(b+1)Gamma(a+b+1),right|_alpha,beta=0^+tag2 $$
and by exploiting $Gamma'(z) = Gamma(z)cdotpsi(z)$ we get:
$$ I = -frac12psi''(2)=sum_ngeq 0frac1(n+1)^3=colorredzeta(3)tag3 $$
as wanted.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I try understand your contribution too, now I am saturated. My changes to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense. Very thanks much @JackD'Aurizio.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Beta function and Feynman's trick are another way to go:
$$I=int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)x,dx =left.fracpartial^2partial a partial bint_0^1x^a-1(1-x)^b,dx,right|_alpha,beta=0^+tag1 $$
hence:
$$ I = left.fracpartial^2partial a partial bfracGamma(a)Gamma(b+1)Gamma(a+b+1),right|_alpha,beta=0^+tag2 $$
and by exploiting $Gamma'(z) = Gamma(z)cdotpsi(z)$ we get:
$$ I = -frac12psi''(2)=sum_ngeq 0frac1(n+1)^3=colorredzeta(3)tag3 $$
as wanted.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I try understand your contribution too, now I am saturated. My changes to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense. Very thanks much @JackD'Aurizio.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Beta function and Feynman's trick are another way to go:
$$I=int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)x,dx =left.fracpartial^2partial a partial bint_0^1x^a-1(1-x)^b,dx,right|_alpha,beta=0^+tag1 $$
hence:
$$ I = left.fracpartial^2partial a partial bfracGamma(a)Gamma(b+1)Gamma(a+b+1),right|_alpha,beta=0^+tag2 $$
and by exploiting $Gamma'(z) = Gamma(z)cdotpsi(z)$ we get:
$$ I = -frac12psi''(2)=sum_ngeq 0frac1(n+1)^3=colorredzeta(3)tag3 $$
as wanted.
$endgroup$
The Beta function and Feynman's trick are another way to go:
$$I=int_0^1fraclog(x)log(1-x)x,dx =left.fracpartial^2partial a partial bint_0^1x^a-1(1-x)^b,dx,right|_alpha,beta=0^+tag1 $$
hence:
$$ I = left.fracpartial^2partial a partial bfracGamma(a)Gamma(b+1)Gamma(a+b+1),right|_alpha,beta=0^+tag2 $$
and by exploiting $Gamma'(z) = Gamma(z)cdotpsi(z)$ we get:
$$ I = -frac12psi''(2)=sum_ngeq 0frac1(n+1)^3=colorredzeta(3)tag3 $$
as wanted.
answered Dec 18 '15 at 18:48
Jack D'AurizioJack D'Aurizio
293k33285675
293k33285675
$begingroup$
I try understand your contribution too, now I am saturated. My changes to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense. Very thanks much @JackD'Aurizio.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I try understand your contribution too, now I am saturated. My changes to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense. Very thanks much @JackD'Aurizio.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:54
$begingroup$
I try understand your contribution too, now I am saturated. My changes to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense. Very thanks much @JackD'Aurizio.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:54
$begingroup$
I try understand your contribution too, now I am saturated. My changes to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense. Very thanks much @JackD'Aurizio.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:54
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
My changes from Beukers integral (see Refereces) to obtain the integral as a summand (there were two summands) were first $x=e^z/y$, second $u=z/y$ and finally $v=e^u$. I hope that it has sense, and there are no mistakes. Too I am assuming that this way is know. Very thanks much all users.
$endgroup$
– user243301
Dec 18 '15 at 18:55
1
$begingroup$
Did you try expanding $ln(1-x)$?
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Apr 26 at 19:37
$begingroup$
Taylor series ... expand $ln(1-x)$ in terms of powers of $x$.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Apr 26 at 19:41
$begingroup$
Seems like taylor series then by parts is the best way forward here
$endgroup$
– George Dewhirst
Apr 26 at 20:07