Prove that $int _0^4:f_n(x),dx < 4^n+1$ where $f_n(x)= left(4x-x^2right)^n$ML-inequality for real integrals$intfracsinleft(xright)cosleft(xright),mathrmdx$ by substitutionShow that $int^infty_0left(fracsin(x)xright)^2 < 2$Evaluating: $int 3xsinleft(frac x4right) , dx$.Prove that $fin L^1left(Omegaright)$ and $lim_nrightarrowinftyint(left|f_nright|-left|f_n-fright|)=intleft|fright| $.If $int _1^infty fleft(xright)dx$ converges absolutely then $int _1^infty sin left(xright)fleft(xright)dx$ existsProve that $int |f_n - f|^p = 0$Does $int _1^infty left(arctanleft(e^xright)-fracpi 2:right):dx$ converge?How is $intcosleft((omega_1-omega_2)t-phiright);dt + intcosleft((omega_1+omega_2)t+phiright);dt $ equal to zero?Find $intfracdxpleft(e^xright)$ where $p$ is a polynomialDoes $f_nto0$ pointwise + $f_n$ integrable + $f_n$ uniformly bounded imply $int f_nto 0$?

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Prove that $int _0^4:f_n(x),dx


ML-inequality for real integrals$intfracsinleft(xright)cosleft(xright),mathrmdx$ by substitutionShow that $int^infty_0left(fracsin(x)xright)^2 < 2$Evaluating: $int 3xsinleft(frac x4right) , dx$.Prove that $fin L^1left(Omegaright)$ and $lim_nrightarrowinftyint(left|f_nright|-left|f_n-fright|)=intleft|fright| $.If $int _1^infty fleft(xright)dx$ converges absolutely then $int _1^infty sin left(xright)fleft(xright)dx$ existsProve that $int |f_n - f|^p = 0$Does $int _1^infty left(arctanleft(e^xright)-fracpi 2:right):dx$ converge?How is $intcosleft((omega_1-omega_2)t-phiright);dt + intcosleft((omega_1+omega_2)t+phiright);dt $ equal to zero?Find $intfracdxpleft(e^xright)$ where $p$ is a polynomialDoes $f_nto0$ pointwise + $f_n$ integrable + $f_n$ uniformly bounded imply $int f_nto 0$?













4












$begingroup$


$ f_n(x) = left(4x-x^2right)^n$



I'm trying to prove that $int _0^4:f_n(x),dx < 4^n+1$



When I'm doing a general integral to $n > 1$, I'm getting an expression that equals to zero when $X = 4$ or $X = 0$.



This is the expression:



$$fracleft(4x-x^2right)^n+1(4-2X)(n+1) $$



What am I missing? Because it doesn't make sense that every integral with $n > 1$ is equal to zero










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    4












    $begingroup$


    $ f_n(x) = left(4x-x^2right)^n$



    I'm trying to prove that $int _0^4:f_n(x),dx < 4^n+1$



    When I'm doing a general integral to $n > 1$, I'm getting an expression that equals to zero when $X = 4$ or $X = 0$.



    This is the expression:



    $$fracleft(4x-x^2right)^n+1(4-2X)(n+1) $$



    What am I missing? Because it doesn't make sense that every integral with $n > 1$ is equal to zero










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      4












      4








      4


      1



      $begingroup$


      $ f_n(x) = left(4x-x^2right)^n$



      I'm trying to prove that $int _0^4:f_n(x),dx < 4^n+1$



      When I'm doing a general integral to $n > 1$, I'm getting an expression that equals to zero when $X = 4$ or $X = 0$.



      This is the expression:



      $$fracleft(4x-x^2right)^n+1(4-2X)(n+1) $$



      What am I missing? Because it doesn't make sense that every integral with $n > 1$ is equal to zero










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      $ f_n(x) = left(4x-x^2right)^n$



      I'm trying to prove that $int _0^4:f_n(x),dx < 4^n+1$



      When I'm doing a general integral to $n > 1$, I'm getting an expression that equals to zero when $X = 4$ or $X = 0$.



      This is the expression:



      $$fracleft(4x-x^2right)^n+1(4-2X)(n+1) $$



      What am I missing? Because it doesn't make sense that every integral with $n > 1$ is equal to zero







      real-analysis integration analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jun 2 at 11:38









      C_M

      1,5281627




      1,5281627










      asked Jun 1 at 19:19









      DanielDaniel

      233




      233




















          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          6












          $begingroup$

          Hint:



          $4x-x^2$ is a quadratic polynomial , with a negative leading coefficient. Furthermore, it vanishes for $x=0$ and $x=4$. Can you find it (absolute) maximum?



          Once you've found this maximum, you can use the mean value inequality for integrals.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            Jun 1 at 19:45



















          4












          $begingroup$

          You cannot just blindly apply the reverse power rule. Remember the chain rule? You have a function within another function.



          Consider the case when n=2



          $ int_0^4 (4x + x^2)^2 dx = int_0^4 16x^2 + 8x^3 + x^4 dx$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            Jun 1 at 19:34






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
            $endgroup$
            – agentnola
            Jun 1 at 19:35


















          2












          $begingroup$

          If you let $I_n = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^ndx$ for every positive integer $n$, you can even find a recurrence relation for this sequence using integration by parts:



          $$I_n = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^n dx = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^n cdot (x-2)'dx = cdots = -2nI_n + 8n I_n-1.$$



          Using this you can easily solve your question using induction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Or rewrite this as: $$ I_n+1= frac8n1+2n I_n $$ And then observe that in general the solution for $$ I_n+1 = c_n cdot I_n $$ is given by: $$ I_ n= I_n_0 cdot prod_ i=n_0 ^n-1 c_i$$ Where $n_0$ denotes the starting index, that is, the first term.
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            Jun 2 at 11:46







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Observe how $I_n_0=I_0 = 4$, we may then write that: $$ I _n = 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n+1 <4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n= 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 4 = 4^n+1 $$
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            Jun 2 at 11:49


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Below is a suggestion for a very tedious route, but I wanted to post it anyway. This is probably not how the question is meant to be done.



          Observe how by the binomial theorem we have that:
          $$I=int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
          We make this look a bit prettier:
          $$I=int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk 4^k cdot (-1)^n-kx^2n-k,dx$$



          We may switch the order of integration and summation since this concerns polynomials (what I mean is that they are of finite order), we compute:
          $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^k cdot (-1)^n-k4^2n-k+1-0$$
          We collect some terms:
          $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^2n+1 cdot (-1)^n-k$$
          Using combinatorial formulae and some help from Wolfram Alpha, this can be exactly computed to be:
          $$ I =fracsqrt pi cdot n! cdot 2^2n+1(n+frac12)!=fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! cdot 4^n + frac12$$
          We then need to prove by induction that $fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! > sqrt4$ for positive $n$.



          Yes. This is a lot of hard work. You could also just take the approach that was posted by Bernard and observe that $4x-x^2$ has a global maximum on the interval $[0,4]$ (the begin and endpoint are zeros of this polynomial), this maximum by symmetry occurs at $x=2$. The function has maximum value $8-4=4$. Observe then by the estimation lemma that $M =max_x in [0,4]((4x-x^2)^n)=4^n$, and the length of our path is $4$. We get:
          $$ int _x=0^4 f_n dx leq M L = 4^n cdot 4 = 4^n+1 $$



          Also see: ML-inequality for real integrals



          Or alternatively, if you don't like applying this theorem, we see that the $f_n$ is continuous as it is a polynomial, it is bounded on $[0,4]$ , thus by the mean value theorem for integrals there must exist a $xi in [0,4]$ such that:
          $$ (4-0) cdot f_n(xi) =int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx$$
          $$ int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx = 4 f_n(xi) $$
          However, observe that $f_n(xi) leq 4^n$ for all $n in mathbb N$ thus:
          $$ int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx leq 4 cdot 4^n = 4^n+1 $$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$




















            0












            $begingroup$

            Here is a nice solution without using the binomial expansion.



            $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^ndx < 4^n+1$$



            If we let n=0, the integral resolves to 0 which is less than 4. So our base case is covered.



            Now assume there exists a $k$ such that



            $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+1$$



            Holds.



            Now we need to prove this inequality holds for the $k+1$.



            $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k+1dx = int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k (4x - x^2)dx $$



            If we apply integration by parts and let $u= 4x -x^2$ and $dv = (4x - x^2)^k$ we get



            $$(4x - x^2) int (4x -x^2)^kdx - (4 - 2x)int(4x -x^2)^kdx $$



            We let our bounds go from 0 to 4 and we get the following



            $$0 int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx + 4 int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k$$



            We know that $int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+1$ therefore we can conclude



            $$4int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+2$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              5 Answers
              5






              active

              oldest

              votes








              5 Answers
              5






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              6












              $begingroup$

              Hint:



              $4x-x^2$ is a quadratic polynomial , with a negative leading coefficient. Furthermore, it vanishes for $x=0$ and $x=4$. Can you find it (absolute) maximum?



              Once you've found this maximum, you can use the mean value inequality for integrals.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 1 at 19:45
















              6












              $begingroup$

              Hint:



              $4x-x^2$ is a quadratic polynomial , with a negative leading coefficient. Furthermore, it vanishes for $x=0$ and $x=4$. Can you find it (absolute) maximum?



              Once you've found this maximum, you can use the mean value inequality for integrals.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 1 at 19:45














              6












              6








              6





              $begingroup$

              Hint:



              $4x-x^2$ is a quadratic polynomial , with a negative leading coefficient. Furthermore, it vanishes for $x=0$ and $x=4$. Can you find it (absolute) maximum?



              Once you've found this maximum, you can use the mean value inequality for integrals.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              Hint:



              $4x-x^2$ is a quadratic polynomial , with a negative leading coefficient. Furthermore, it vanishes for $x=0$ and $x=4$. Can you find it (absolute) maximum?



              Once you've found this maximum, you can use the mean value inequality for integrals.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Jun 1 at 19:35









              BernardBernard

              127k743122




              127k743122











              • $begingroup$
                Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 1 at 19:45

















              • $begingroup$
                Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 1 at 19:45
















              $begingroup$
              Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              Jun 1 at 19:45





              $begingroup$
              Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              Jun 1 at 19:45












              4












              $begingroup$

              You cannot just blindly apply the reverse power rule. Remember the chain rule? You have a function within another function.



              Consider the case when n=2



              $ int_0^4 (4x + x^2)^2 dx = int_0^4 16x^2 + 8x^3 + x^4 dx$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 1 at 19:34






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
                $endgroup$
                – agentnola
                Jun 1 at 19:35















              4












              $begingroup$

              You cannot just blindly apply the reverse power rule. Remember the chain rule? You have a function within another function.



              Consider the case when n=2



              $ int_0^4 (4x + x^2)^2 dx = int_0^4 16x^2 + 8x^3 + x^4 dx$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$












              • $begingroup$
                Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 1 at 19:34






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
                $endgroup$
                – agentnola
                Jun 1 at 19:35













              4












              4








              4





              $begingroup$

              You cannot just blindly apply the reverse power rule. Remember the chain rule? You have a function within another function.



              Consider the case when n=2



              $ int_0^4 (4x + x^2)^2 dx = int_0^4 16x^2 + 8x^3 + x^4 dx$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              You cannot just blindly apply the reverse power rule. Remember the chain rule? You have a function within another function.



              Consider the case when n=2



              $ int_0^4 (4x + x^2)^2 dx = int_0^4 16x^2 + 8x^3 + x^4 dx$







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Jun 1 at 19:31









              agentnolaagentnola

              689




              689











              • $begingroup$
                Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 1 at 19:34






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
                $endgroup$
                – agentnola
                Jun 1 at 19:35
















              • $begingroup$
                Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 1 at 19:34






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
                $endgroup$
                – agentnola
                Jun 1 at 19:35















              $begingroup$
              Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              Jun 1 at 19:34




              $begingroup$
              Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              Jun 1 at 19:34




              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
              $endgroup$
              – agentnola
              Jun 1 at 19:35




              $begingroup$
              That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
              $endgroup$
              – agentnola
              Jun 1 at 19:35











              2












              $begingroup$

              If you let $I_n = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^ndx$ for every positive integer $n$, you can even find a recurrence relation for this sequence using integration by parts:



              $$I_n = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^n dx = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^n cdot (x-2)'dx = cdots = -2nI_n + 8n I_n-1.$$



              Using this you can easily solve your question using induction.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$








              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Or rewrite this as: $$ I_n+1= frac8n1+2n I_n $$ And then observe that in general the solution for $$ I_n+1 = c_n cdot I_n $$ is given by: $$ I_ n= I_n_0 cdot prod_ i=n_0 ^n-1 c_i$$ Where $n_0$ denotes the starting index, that is, the first term.
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 2 at 11:46







              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Observe how $I_n_0=I_0 = 4$, we may then write that: $$ I _n = 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n+1 <4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n= 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 4 = 4^n+1 $$
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 2 at 11:49















              2












              $begingroup$

              If you let $I_n = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^ndx$ for every positive integer $n$, you can even find a recurrence relation for this sequence using integration by parts:



              $$I_n = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^n dx = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^n cdot (x-2)'dx = cdots = -2nI_n + 8n I_n-1.$$



              Using this you can easily solve your question using induction.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$








              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Or rewrite this as: $$ I_n+1= frac8n1+2n I_n $$ And then observe that in general the solution for $$ I_n+1 = c_n cdot I_n $$ is given by: $$ I_ n= I_n_0 cdot prod_ i=n_0 ^n-1 c_i$$ Where $n_0$ denotes the starting index, that is, the first term.
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 2 at 11:46







              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Observe how $I_n_0=I_0 = 4$, we may then write that: $$ I _n = 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n+1 <4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n= 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 4 = 4^n+1 $$
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 2 at 11:49













              2












              2








              2





              $begingroup$

              If you let $I_n = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^ndx$ for every positive integer $n$, you can even find a recurrence relation for this sequence using integration by parts:



              $$I_n = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^n dx = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^n cdot (x-2)'dx = cdots = -2nI_n + 8n I_n-1.$$



              Using this you can easily solve your question using induction.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              If you let $I_n = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^ndx$ for every positive integer $n$, you can even find a recurrence relation for this sequence using integration by parts:



              $$I_n = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^n dx = int_0^4 (4x-x^2)^n cdot (x-2)'dx = cdots = -2nI_n + 8n I_n-1.$$



              Using this you can easily solve your question using induction.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Jun 2 at 11:12









              C_MC_M

              1,5281627




              1,5281627







              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Or rewrite this as: $$ I_n+1= frac8n1+2n I_n $$ And then observe that in general the solution for $$ I_n+1 = c_n cdot I_n $$ is given by: $$ I_ n= I_n_0 cdot prod_ i=n_0 ^n-1 c_i$$ Where $n_0$ denotes the starting index, that is, the first term.
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 2 at 11:46







              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Observe how $I_n_0=I_0 = 4$, we may then write that: $$ I _n = 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n+1 <4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n= 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 4 = 4^n+1 $$
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 2 at 11:49












              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Or rewrite this as: $$ I_n+1= frac8n1+2n I_n $$ And then observe that in general the solution for $$ I_n+1 = c_n cdot I_n $$ is given by: $$ I_ n= I_n_0 cdot prod_ i=n_0 ^n-1 c_i$$ Where $n_0$ denotes the starting index, that is, the first term.
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 2 at 11:46







              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Observe how $I_n_0=I_0 = 4$, we may then write that: $$ I _n = 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n+1 <4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n= 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 4 = 4^n+1 $$
                $endgroup$
                – Wesley Strik
                Jun 2 at 11:49







              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              Or rewrite this as: $$ I_n+1= frac8n1+2n I_n $$ And then observe that in general the solution for $$ I_n+1 = c_n cdot I_n $$ is given by: $$ I_ n= I_n_0 cdot prod_ i=n_0 ^n-1 c_i$$ Where $n_0$ denotes the starting index, that is, the first term.
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              Jun 2 at 11:46





              $begingroup$
              Or rewrite this as: $$ I_n+1= frac8n1+2n I_n $$ And then observe that in general the solution for $$ I_n+1 = c_n cdot I_n $$ is given by: $$ I_ n= I_n_0 cdot prod_ i=n_0 ^n-1 c_i$$ Where $n_0$ denotes the starting index, that is, the first term.
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              Jun 2 at 11:46





              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              Observe how $I_n_0=I_0 = 4$, we may then write that: $$ I _n = 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n+1 <4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n= 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 4 = 4^n+1 $$
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              Jun 2 at 11:49




              $begingroup$
              Observe how $I_n_0=I_0 = 4$, we may then write that: $$ I _n = 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n+1 <4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 frac8n2n= 4 cdot prod_i=0 ^n-1 4 = 4^n+1 $$
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              Jun 2 at 11:49











              2












              $begingroup$

              Below is a suggestion for a very tedious route, but I wanted to post it anyway. This is probably not how the question is meant to be done.



              Observe how by the binomial theorem we have that:
              $$I=int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
              We make this look a bit prettier:
              $$I=int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk 4^k cdot (-1)^n-kx^2n-k,dx$$



              We may switch the order of integration and summation since this concerns polynomials (what I mean is that they are of finite order), we compute:
              $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^k cdot (-1)^n-k4^2n-k+1-0$$
              We collect some terms:
              $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^2n+1 cdot (-1)^n-k$$
              Using combinatorial formulae and some help from Wolfram Alpha, this can be exactly computed to be:
              $$ I =fracsqrt pi cdot n! cdot 2^2n+1(n+frac12)!=fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! cdot 4^n + frac12$$
              We then need to prove by induction that $fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! > sqrt4$ for positive $n$.



              Yes. This is a lot of hard work. You could also just take the approach that was posted by Bernard and observe that $4x-x^2$ has a global maximum on the interval $[0,4]$ (the begin and endpoint are zeros of this polynomial), this maximum by symmetry occurs at $x=2$. The function has maximum value $8-4=4$. Observe then by the estimation lemma that $M =max_x in [0,4]((4x-x^2)^n)=4^n$, and the length of our path is $4$. We get:
              $$ int _x=0^4 f_n dx leq M L = 4^n cdot 4 = 4^n+1 $$



              Also see: ML-inequality for real integrals



              Or alternatively, if you don't like applying this theorem, we see that the $f_n$ is continuous as it is a polynomial, it is bounded on $[0,4]$ , thus by the mean value theorem for integrals there must exist a $xi in [0,4]$ such that:
              $$ (4-0) cdot f_n(xi) =int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx$$
              $$ int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx = 4 f_n(xi) $$
              However, observe that $f_n(xi) leq 4^n$ for all $n in mathbb N$ thus:
              $$ int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx leq 4 cdot 4^n = 4^n+1 $$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                2












                $begingroup$

                Below is a suggestion for a very tedious route, but I wanted to post it anyway. This is probably not how the question is meant to be done.



                Observe how by the binomial theorem we have that:
                $$I=int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
                We make this look a bit prettier:
                $$I=int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk 4^k cdot (-1)^n-kx^2n-k,dx$$



                We may switch the order of integration and summation since this concerns polynomials (what I mean is that they are of finite order), we compute:
                $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^k cdot (-1)^n-k4^2n-k+1-0$$
                We collect some terms:
                $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^2n+1 cdot (-1)^n-k$$
                Using combinatorial formulae and some help from Wolfram Alpha, this can be exactly computed to be:
                $$ I =fracsqrt pi cdot n! cdot 2^2n+1(n+frac12)!=fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! cdot 4^n + frac12$$
                We then need to prove by induction that $fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! > sqrt4$ for positive $n$.



                Yes. This is a lot of hard work. You could also just take the approach that was posted by Bernard and observe that $4x-x^2$ has a global maximum on the interval $[0,4]$ (the begin and endpoint are zeros of this polynomial), this maximum by symmetry occurs at $x=2$. The function has maximum value $8-4=4$. Observe then by the estimation lemma that $M =max_x in [0,4]((4x-x^2)^n)=4^n$, and the length of our path is $4$. We get:
                $$ int _x=0^4 f_n dx leq M L = 4^n cdot 4 = 4^n+1 $$



                Also see: ML-inequality for real integrals



                Or alternatively, if you don't like applying this theorem, we see that the $f_n$ is continuous as it is a polynomial, it is bounded on $[0,4]$ , thus by the mean value theorem for integrals there must exist a $xi in [0,4]$ such that:
                $$ (4-0) cdot f_n(xi) =int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx$$
                $$ int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx = 4 f_n(xi) $$
                However, observe that $f_n(xi) leq 4^n$ for all $n in mathbb N$ thus:
                $$ int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx leq 4 cdot 4^n = 4^n+1 $$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  Below is a suggestion for a very tedious route, but I wanted to post it anyway. This is probably not how the question is meant to be done.



                  Observe how by the binomial theorem we have that:
                  $$I=int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
                  We make this look a bit prettier:
                  $$I=int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk 4^k cdot (-1)^n-kx^2n-k,dx$$



                  We may switch the order of integration and summation since this concerns polynomials (what I mean is that they are of finite order), we compute:
                  $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^k cdot (-1)^n-k4^2n-k+1-0$$
                  We collect some terms:
                  $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^2n+1 cdot (-1)^n-k$$
                  Using combinatorial formulae and some help from Wolfram Alpha, this can be exactly computed to be:
                  $$ I =fracsqrt pi cdot n! cdot 2^2n+1(n+frac12)!=fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! cdot 4^n + frac12$$
                  We then need to prove by induction that $fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! > sqrt4$ for positive $n$.



                  Yes. This is a lot of hard work. You could also just take the approach that was posted by Bernard and observe that $4x-x^2$ has a global maximum on the interval $[0,4]$ (the begin and endpoint are zeros of this polynomial), this maximum by symmetry occurs at $x=2$. The function has maximum value $8-4=4$. Observe then by the estimation lemma that $M =max_x in [0,4]((4x-x^2)^n)=4^n$, and the length of our path is $4$. We get:
                  $$ int _x=0^4 f_n dx leq M L = 4^n cdot 4 = 4^n+1 $$



                  Also see: ML-inequality for real integrals



                  Or alternatively, if you don't like applying this theorem, we see that the $f_n$ is continuous as it is a polynomial, it is bounded on $[0,4]$ , thus by the mean value theorem for integrals there must exist a $xi in [0,4]$ such that:
                  $$ (4-0) cdot f_n(xi) =int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx$$
                  $$ int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx = 4 f_n(xi) $$
                  However, observe that $f_n(xi) leq 4^n$ for all $n in mathbb N$ thus:
                  $$ int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx leq 4 cdot 4^n = 4^n+1 $$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Below is a suggestion for a very tedious route, but I wanted to post it anyway. This is probably not how the question is meant to be done.



                  Observe how by the binomial theorem we have that:
                  $$I=int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
                  We make this look a bit prettier:
                  $$I=int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk 4^k cdot (-1)^n-kx^2n-k,dx$$



                  We may switch the order of integration and summation since this concerns polynomials (what I mean is that they are of finite order), we compute:
                  $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^k cdot (-1)^n-k4^2n-k+1-0$$
                  We collect some terms:
                  $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^2n+1 cdot (-1)^n-k$$
                  Using combinatorial formulae and some help from Wolfram Alpha, this can be exactly computed to be:
                  $$ I =fracsqrt pi cdot n! cdot 2^2n+1(n+frac12)!=fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! cdot 4^n + frac12$$
                  We then need to prove by induction that $fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! > sqrt4$ for positive $n$.



                  Yes. This is a lot of hard work. You could also just take the approach that was posted by Bernard and observe that $4x-x^2$ has a global maximum on the interval $[0,4]$ (the begin and endpoint are zeros of this polynomial), this maximum by symmetry occurs at $x=2$. The function has maximum value $8-4=4$. Observe then by the estimation lemma that $M =max_x in [0,4]((4x-x^2)^n)=4^n$, and the length of our path is $4$. We get:
                  $$ int _x=0^4 f_n dx leq M L = 4^n cdot 4 = 4^n+1 $$



                  Also see: ML-inequality for real integrals



                  Or alternatively, if you don't like applying this theorem, we see that the $f_n$ is continuous as it is a polynomial, it is bounded on $[0,4]$ , thus by the mean value theorem for integrals there must exist a $xi in [0,4]$ such that:
                  $$ (4-0) cdot f_n(xi) =int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx$$
                  $$ int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx = 4 f_n(xi) $$
                  However, observe that $f_n(xi) leq 4^n$ for all $n in mathbb N$ thus:
                  $$ int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx leq 4 cdot 4^n = 4^n+1 $$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jun 2 at 11:40

























                  answered Jun 1 at 20:14









                  Wesley StrikWesley Strik

                  2,3851424




                  2,3851424





















                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      Here is a nice solution without using the binomial expansion.



                      $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^ndx < 4^n+1$$



                      If we let n=0, the integral resolves to 0 which is less than 4. So our base case is covered.



                      Now assume there exists a $k$ such that



                      $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+1$$



                      Holds.



                      Now we need to prove this inequality holds for the $k+1$.



                      $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k+1dx = int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k (4x - x^2)dx $$



                      If we apply integration by parts and let $u= 4x -x^2$ and $dv = (4x - x^2)^k$ we get



                      $$(4x - x^2) int (4x -x^2)^kdx - (4 - 2x)int(4x -x^2)^kdx $$



                      We let our bounds go from 0 to 4 and we get the following



                      $$0 int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx + 4 int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k$$



                      We know that $int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+1$ therefore we can conclude



                      $$4int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+2$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Here is a nice solution without using the binomial expansion.



                        $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^ndx < 4^n+1$$



                        If we let n=0, the integral resolves to 0 which is less than 4. So our base case is covered.



                        Now assume there exists a $k$ such that



                        $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+1$$



                        Holds.



                        Now we need to prove this inequality holds for the $k+1$.



                        $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k+1dx = int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k (4x - x^2)dx $$



                        If we apply integration by parts and let $u= 4x -x^2$ and $dv = (4x - x^2)^k$ we get



                        $$(4x - x^2) int (4x -x^2)^kdx - (4 - 2x)int(4x -x^2)^kdx $$



                        We let our bounds go from 0 to 4 and we get the following



                        $$0 int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx + 4 int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k$$



                        We know that $int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+1$ therefore we can conclude



                        $$4int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+2$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          Here is a nice solution without using the binomial expansion.



                          $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^ndx < 4^n+1$$



                          If we let n=0, the integral resolves to 0 which is less than 4. So our base case is covered.



                          Now assume there exists a $k$ such that



                          $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+1$$



                          Holds.



                          Now we need to prove this inequality holds for the $k+1$.



                          $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k+1dx = int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k (4x - x^2)dx $$



                          If we apply integration by parts and let $u= 4x -x^2$ and $dv = (4x - x^2)^k$ we get



                          $$(4x - x^2) int (4x -x^2)^kdx - (4 - 2x)int(4x -x^2)^kdx $$



                          We let our bounds go from 0 to 4 and we get the following



                          $$0 int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx + 4 int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k$$



                          We know that $int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+1$ therefore we can conclude



                          $$4int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+2$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Here is a nice solution without using the binomial expansion.



                          $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^ndx < 4^n+1$$



                          If we let n=0, the integral resolves to 0 which is less than 4. So our base case is covered.



                          Now assume there exists a $k$ such that



                          $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+1$$



                          Holds.



                          Now we need to prove this inequality holds for the $k+1$.



                          $$int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k+1dx = int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k (4x - x^2)dx $$



                          If we apply integration by parts and let $u= 4x -x^2$ and $dv = (4x - x^2)^k$ we get



                          $$(4x - x^2) int (4x -x^2)^kdx - (4 - 2x)int(4x -x^2)^kdx $$



                          We let our bounds go from 0 to 4 and we get the following



                          $$0 int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx + 4 int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^k$$



                          We know that $int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+1$ therefore we can conclude



                          $$4int_0^4 (4x -x^2)^kdx < 4^k+2$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jun 9 at 0:33









                          agentnolaagentnola

                          689




                          689



























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