Why are there two different versions of the Decalogue?Why are some sons' answers different from what's written in the Torah?Why do people say a half-verse as part of shabbos morning kiddush?Why are there 40 commandments in 10 commandments?Why do we need both the Two Tablets as well as the Sefer Torah?History of Shabbat: how (or) did they count to align with 7th day of creation?Is there debate about what the 10 statements are?It seems Noah was keeping Sabbath. Do the sages address this?What do commentaries say about the different version of “Honor Thy Parents”?Why are there different versions for the last stanza of Lecha Dodi?What was actually written on the two tablets?

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Why are there two different versions of the Decalogue?


Why are some sons' answers different from what's written in the Torah?Why do people say a half-verse as part of shabbos morning kiddush?Why are there 40 commandments in 10 commandments?Why do we need both the Two Tablets as well as the Sefer Torah?History of Shabbat: how (or) did they count to align with 7th day of creation?Is there debate about what the 10 statements are?It seems Noah was keeping Sabbath. Do the sages address this?What do commentaries say about the different version of “Honor Thy Parents”?Why are there different versions for the last stanza of Lecha Dodi?What was actually written on the two tablets?













1















Why are there two different versions of the Shabbat commandment in Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5? In Exodus 20 the Shabbat recalls the cosmogony in six days, but in Deuteronomy 5 the Shabbat memorializes the deliverance from slavery in Egypt.




י כִּי שֵׁשֶׁת-יָמִים עָשָׂה יְהוָה אֶת-הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֶת-הָאָרֶץ, אֶת-הַיָּם וְאֶת-כָּל-אֲשֶׁר-בָּם, וַיָּנַח, בַּיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי; עַל-כֵּן, בֵּרַךְ יְהוָה אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת--וַיְקַדְּשֵׁהוּ. {ס (Exodus 20:10)



וְזָכַרְתָּ, כִּי עֶבֶד הָיִיתָ בְּאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם, וַיֹּצִאֲךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ מִשָּׁם, בְּיָד חֲזָקָה וּבִזְרֹעַ נְטוּיָה; עַל-כֵּן, צִוְּךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ, לַעֲשׂוֹת, אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת. (Deuteronomy 5:14)




More comprensively, [1]'The introductory statements for each of the versions of this commandment use unique language to describe the active commemoration of Shabbat - "to remember", on the one hand, and "to guard", on the other. [2] In both versions, the main body of the commandment consists of a similar list of laws, albeit more fully developed by presumably explanatory material in Devarim. [3] The conclusions drawn by each of the two versions seem to offer mutually exclusive philosophical underpinnings for the Shabbat.' (An article at Aish.com)



What were the original words spoken by God on Mount Sinai?










share|improve this question




























    1















    Why are there two different versions of the Shabbat commandment in Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5? In Exodus 20 the Shabbat recalls the cosmogony in six days, but in Deuteronomy 5 the Shabbat memorializes the deliverance from slavery in Egypt.




    י כִּי שֵׁשֶׁת-יָמִים עָשָׂה יְהוָה אֶת-הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֶת-הָאָרֶץ, אֶת-הַיָּם וְאֶת-כָּל-אֲשֶׁר-בָּם, וַיָּנַח, בַּיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי; עַל-כֵּן, בֵּרַךְ יְהוָה אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת--וַיְקַדְּשֵׁהוּ. {ס (Exodus 20:10)



    וְזָכַרְתָּ, כִּי עֶבֶד הָיִיתָ בְּאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם, וַיֹּצִאֲךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ מִשָּׁם, בְּיָד חֲזָקָה וּבִזְרֹעַ נְטוּיָה; עַל-כֵּן, צִוְּךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ, לַעֲשׂוֹת, אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת. (Deuteronomy 5:14)




    More comprensively, [1]'The introductory statements for each of the versions of this commandment use unique language to describe the active commemoration of Shabbat - "to remember", on the one hand, and "to guard", on the other. [2] In both versions, the main body of the commandment consists of a similar list of laws, albeit more fully developed by presumably explanatory material in Devarim. [3] The conclusions drawn by each of the two versions seem to offer mutually exclusive philosophical underpinnings for the Shabbat.' (An article at Aish.com)



    What were the original words spoken by God on Mount Sinai?










    share|improve this question


























      1












      1








      1


      1






      Why are there two different versions of the Shabbat commandment in Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5? In Exodus 20 the Shabbat recalls the cosmogony in six days, but in Deuteronomy 5 the Shabbat memorializes the deliverance from slavery in Egypt.




      י כִּי שֵׁשֶׁת-יָמִים עָשָׂה יְהוָה אֶת-הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֶת-הָאָרֶץ, אֶת-הַיָּם וְאֶת-כָּל-אֲשֶׁר-בָּם, וַיָּנַח, בַּיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי; עַל-כֵּן, בֵּרַךְ יְהוָה אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת--וַיְקַדְּשֵׁהוּ. {ס (Exodus 20:10)



      וְזָכַרְתָּ, כִּי עֶבֶד הָיִיתָ בְּאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם, וַיֹּצִאֲךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ מִשָּׁם, בְּיָד חֲזָקָה וּבִזְרֹעַ נְטוּיָה; עַל-כֵּן, צִוְּךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ, לַעֲשׂוֹת, אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת. (Deuteronomy 5:14)




      More comprensively, [1]'The introductory statements for each of the versions of this commandment use unique language to describe the active commemoration of Shabbat - "to remember", on the one hand, and "to guard", on the other. [2] In both versions, the main body of the commandment consists of a similar list of laws, albeit more fully developed by presumably explanatory material in Devarim. [3] The conclusions drawn by each of the two versions seem to offer mutually exclusive philosophical underpinnings for the Shabbat.' (An article at Aish.com)



      What were the original words spoken by God on Mount Sinai?










      share|improve this question
















      Why are there two different versions of the Shabbat commandment in Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5? In Exodus 20 the Shabbat recalls the cosmogony in six days, but in Deuteronomy 5 the Shabbat memorializes the deliverance from slavery in Egypt.




      י כִּי שֵׁשֶׁת-יָמִים עָשָׂה יְהוָה אֶת-הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֶת-הָאָרֶץ, אֶת-הַיָּם וְאֶת-כָּל-אֲשֶׁר-בָּם, וַיָּנַח, בַּיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי; עַל-כֵּן, בֵּרַךְ יְהוָה אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת--וַיְקַדְּשֵׁהוּ. {ס (Exodus 20:10)



      וְזָכַרְתָּ, כִּי עֶבֶד הָיִיתָ בְּאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם, וַיֹּצִאֲךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ מִשָּׁם, בְּיָד חֲזָקָה וּבִזְרֹעַ נְטוּיָה; עַל-כֵּן, צִוְּךָ יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ, לַעֲשׂוֹת, אֶת-יוֹם הַשַּׁבָּת. (Deuteronomy 5:14)




      More comprensively, [1]'The introductory statements for each of the versions of this commandment use unique language to describe the active commemoration of Shabbat - "to remember", on the one hand, and "to guard", on the other. [2] In both versions, the main body of the commandment consists of a similar list of laws, albeit more fully developed by presumably explanatory material in Devarim. [3] The conclusions drawn by each of the two versions seem to offer mutually exclusive philosophical underpinnings for the Shabbat.' (An article at Aish.com)



      What were the original words spoken by God on Mount Sinai?







      shabbat parashas-yisro aseres-hadibros vaeschanan






      share|improve this question















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      share|improve this question




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      edited May 15 at 6:03







      Clifford Durousseau

















      asked May 12 at 16:47









      Clifford DurousseauClifford Durousseau

      1,251623




      1,251623




















          2 Answers
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          You can read in detail about the issue in this great article. To keep it short, Shevuot 20b mentions that the two versions were said in a single utterance, which is beyond human comprehension:




          כדתניא זכור ושמור בדיבור אחד נאמרו, מה שאין יכול הפה לדבר, ומה שאין האוזן יכול לשמוע.‏



          As it has been taught: Remember and keep were pronounced in a single utterance — an utterance which the mouth cannot utter, nor the ear hear.



          Soncino translation




          Traditional commentaries learn from these two versions the positive and the negative commandments of the Shabbat. Another implication that can be learnt from the same page in the Talmud, is that women are obligated to fulfil these positive time-bound commandments related to the Shabbat (kiddush, havdalah).






          share|improve this answer

























          • Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

            – Alex
            May 12 at 19:02






          • 1





            @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 12 at 19:08











          • @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 12 at 19:08











          • @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 12 at 19:11






          • 1





            @Clifford sefaria.org/Psalms.62.12

            – Double AA
            May 13 at 0:02


















          1














          Here's an explanation you might find satisfactory:



          1. The first difference between the 2 versions is who said it - the first was said by G-d and the second by Moses and as indirect prophecy (it wasn't preceded by "וידבר הק אל משה לאמר" - he described the Decalogue in his own words.


          2. The second is to whom they were said: the first was said to the Generation of the wilderness (דור המדבר), and the second to the Generation of the Land (דור הארץ).


          Because the source and the audiences were different, the message targeted [slightly] different aspects of the Mitzvos, according to their abilities and predispositions.




          The idea of the differences between the generations is explained in many sources but it is a subject on its own.






          share|improve this answer























          • Al BerkoI gave you an upvote for your well written answer. --- But I still do not see how Moses (Moshe) felt it was okay to CHANGE the reason for the Fourth Commandment which was engraven in stone by the finger of God and carried around in the ark of the covenant of the LORD and not indicate that he was not giving a verbatim quote!

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 12 at 23:58












          • Al Berko And especially in the mitzvah of Shabbat!!!

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 13 at 0:25











          • While this is true in general about Mishneh Torah, we have a counter-evidence in the particular case of the Shabbat. Do you have any sources which say that Moses changed the words here for whatever reason?

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 13 at 5:53











          • @Kazibácsi I'm not saying "Moses failed" or "Moses betrayed G-d's word". Chumash Dvorim is not "less sacred" than the first 4. Moses said his prophecy just as the rest of the Torah, but they were different as they targeted a different audience.

            – Al Berko
            May 13 at 11:21











          • I understand your confusion, but we have no clear evidence of what was written on those tablets. Was it a simple text? Could it be read differently (a hologram probably)? Could it have changed as Moses said it differently? Also remember that only Moses had access to those Luchos. :)

            – Al Berko
            May 13 at 11:23


















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2














          You can read in detail about the issue in this great article. To keep it short, Shevuot 20b mentions that the two versions were said in a single utterance, which is beyond human comprehension:




          כדתניא זכור ושמור בדיבור אחד נאמרו, מה שאין יכול הפה לדבר, ומה שאין האוזן יכול לשמוע.‏



          As it has been taught: Remember and keep were pronounced in a single utterance — an utterance which the mouth cannot utter, nor the ear hear.



          Soncino translation




          Traditional commentaries learn from these two versions the positive and the negative commandments of the Shabbat. Another implication that can be learnt from the same page in the Talmud, is that women are obligated to fulfil these positive time-bound commandments related to the Shabbat (kiddush, havdalah).






          share|improve this answer

























          • Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

            – Alex
            May 12 at 19:02






          • 1





            @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 12 at 19:08











          • @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 12 at 19:08











          • @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 12 at 19:11






          • 1





            @Clifford sefaria.org/Psalms.62.12

            – Double AA
            May 13 at 0:02















          2














          You can read in detail about the issue in this great article. To keep it short, Shevuot 20b mentions that the two versions were said in a single utterance, which is beyond human comprehension:




          כדתניא זכור ושמור בדיבור אחד נאמרו, מה שאין יכול הפה לדבר, ומה שאין האוזן יכול לשמוע.‏



          As it has been taught: Remember and keep were pronounced in a single utterance — an utterance which the mouth cannot utter, nor the ear hear.



          Soncino translation




          Traditional commentaries learn from these two versions the positive and the negative commandments of the Shabbat. Another implication that can be learnt from the same page in the Talmud, is that women are obligated to fulfil these positive time-bound commandments related to the Shabbat (kiddush, havdalah).






          share|improve this answer

























          • Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

            – Alex
            May 12 at 19:02






          • 1





            @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 12 at 19:08











          • @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 12 at 19:08











          • @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 12 at 19:11






          • 1





            @Clifford sefaria.org/Psalms.62.12

            – Double AA
            May 13 at 0:02













          2












          2








          2







          You can read in detail about the issue in this great article. To keep it short, Shevuot 20b mentions that the two versions were said in a single utterance, which is beyond human comprehension:




          כדתניא זכור ושמור בדיבור אחד נאמרו, מה שאין יכול הפה לדבר, ומה שאין האוזן יכול לשמוע.‏



          As it has been taught: Remember and keep were pronounced in a single utterance — an utterance which the mouth cannot utter, nor the ear hear.



          Soncino translation




          Traditional commentaries learn from these two versions the positive and the negative commandments of the Shabbat. Another implication that can be learnt from the same page in the Talmud, is that women are obligated to fulfil these positive time-bound commandments related to the Shabbat (kiddush, havdalah).






          share|improve this answer















          You can read in detail about the issue in this great article. To keep it short, Shevuot 20b mentions that the two versions were said in a single utterance, which is beyond human comprehension:




          כדתניא זכור ושמור בדיבור אחד נאמרו, מה שאין יכול הפה לדבר, ומה שאין האוזן יכול לשמוע.‏



          As it has been taught: Remember and keep were pronounced in a single utterance — an utterance which the mouth cannot utter, nor the ear hear.



          Soncino translation




          Traditional commentaries learn from these two versions the positive and the negative commandments of the Shabbat. Another implication that can be learnt from the same page in the Talmud, is that women are obligated to fulfil these positive time-bound commandments related to the Shabbat (kiddush, havdalah).







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited May 12 at 18:59

























          answered May 12 at 18:24









          Kazi bácsiKazi bácsi

          2,87611030




          2,87611030












          • Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

            – Alex
            May 12 at 19:02






          • 1





            @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 12 at 19:08











          • @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 12 at 19:08











          • @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 12 at 19:11






          • 1





            @Clifford sefaria.org/Psalms.62.12

            – Double AA
            May 13 at 0:02

















          • Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

            – Alex
            May 12 at 19:02






          • 1





            @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 12 at 19:08











          • @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 12 at 19:08











          • @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 12 at 19:11






          • 1





            @Clifford sefaria.org/Psalms.62.12

            – Double AA
            May 13 at 0:02
















          Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

          – Alex
          May 12 at 19:02





          Does זכור and שמור in a single utterance mean that the entirety of the verses were paralleled in a single utterance?

          – Alex
          May 12 at 19:02




          1




          1





          @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

          – Clifford Durousseau
          May 12 at 19:08





          @Kazi bacsi The Shevuot 20b explanation that an understanding of the difference is beyond understanding is like the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, which is said to be beyond human comprehension. I do not find these responses satisfactory.

          – Clifford Durousseau
          May 12 at 19:08













          @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

          – Kazi bácsi
          May 12 at 19:08





          @Alex As I understand from the Talmud and Rashi, yes

          – Kazi bácsi
          May 12 at 19:08













          @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

          – Kazi bácsi
          May 12 at 19:11





          @CliffordDurousseau Hashem can select certain people to percieve and comprehend his ways. Moses was talking with Hashem as we humans do, prophets had the merit of visions. Why do you think then that Hashem is limited by human abilities?

          – Kazi bácsi
          May 12 at 19:11




          1




          1





          @Clifford sefaria.org/Psalms.62.12

          – Double AA
          May 13 at 0:02





          @Clifford sefaria.org/Psalms.62.12

          – Double AA
          May 13 at 0:02











          1














          Here's an explanation you might find satisfactory:



          1. The first difference between the 2 versions is who said it - the first was said by G-d and the second by Moses and as indirect prophecy (it wasn't preceded by "וידבר הק אל משה לאמר" - he described the Decalogue in his own words.


          2. The second is to whom they were said: the first was said to the Generation of the wilderness (דור המדבר), and the second to the Generation of the Land (דור הארץ).


          Because the source and the audiences were different, the message targeted [slightly] different aspects of the Mitzvos, according to their abilities and predispositions.




          The idea of the differences between the generations is explained in many sources but it is a subject on its own.






          share|improve this answer























          • Al BerkoI gave you an upvote for your well written answer. --- But I still do not see how Moses (Moshe) felt it was okay to CHANGE the reason for the Fourth Commandment which was engraven in stone by the finger of God and carried around in the ark of the covenant of the LORD and not indicate that he was not giving a verbatim quote!

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 12 at 23:58












          • Al Berko And especially in the mitzvah of Shabbat!!!

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 13 at 0:25











          • While this is true in general about Mishneh Torah, we have a counter-evidence in the particular case of the Shabbat. Do you have any sources which say that Moses changed the words here for whatever reason?

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 13 at 5:53











          • @Kazibácsi I'm not saying "Moses failed" or "Moses betrayed G-d's word". Chumash Dvorim is not "less sacred" than the first 4. Moses said his prophecy just as the rest of the Torah, but they were different as they targeted a different audience.

            – Al Berko
            May 13 at 11:21











          • I understand your confusion, but we have no clear evidence of what was written on those tablets. Was it a simple text? Could it be read differently (a hologram probably)? Could it have changed as Moses said it differently? Also remember that only Moses had access to those Luchos. :)

            – Al Berko
            May 13 at 11:23















          1














          Here's an explanation you might find satisfactory:



          1. The first difference between the 2 versions is who said it - the first was said by G-d and the second by Moses and as indirect prophecy (it wasn't preceded by "וידבר הק אל משה לאמר" - he described the Decalogue in his own words.


          2. The second is to whom they were said: the first was said to the Generation of the wilderness (דור המדבר), and the second to the Generation of the Land (דור הארץ).


          Because the source and the audiences were different, the message targeted [slightly] different aspects of the Mitzvos, according to their abilities and predispositions.




          The idea of the differences between the generations is explained in many sources but it is a subject on its own.






          share|improve this answer























          • Al BerkoI gave you an upvote for your well written answer. --- But I still do not see how Moses (Moshe) felt it was okay to CHANGE the reason for the Fourth Commandment which was engraven in stone by the finger of God and carried around in the ark of the covenant of the LORD and not indicate that he was not giving a verbatim quote!

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 12 at 23:58












          • Al Berko And especially in the mitzvah of Shabbat!!!

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 13 at 0:25











          • While this is true in general about Mishneh Torah, we have a counter-evidence in the particular case of the Shabbat. Do you have any sources which say that Moses changed the words here for whatever reason?

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 13 at 5:53











          • @Kazibácsi I'm not saying "Moses failed" or "Moses betrayed G-d's word". Chumash Dvorim is not "less sacred" than the first 4. Moses said his prophecy just as the rest of the Torah, but they were different as they targeted a different audience.

            – Al Berko
            May 13 at 11:21











          • I understand your confusion, but we have no clear evidence of what was written on those tablets. Was it a simple text? Could it be read differently (a hologram probably)? Could it have changed as Moses said it differently? Also remember that only Moses had access to those Luchos. :)

            – Al Berko
            May 13 at 11:23













          1












          1








          1







          Here's an explanation you might find satisfactory:



          1. The first difference between the 2 versions is who said it - the first was said by G-d and the second by Moses and as indirect prophecy (it wasn't preceded by "וידבר הק אל משה לאמר" - he described the Decalogue in his own words.


          2. The second is to whom they were said: the first was said to the Generation of the wilderness (דור המדבר), and the second to the Generation of the Land (דור הארץ).


          Because the source and the audiences were different, the message targeted [slightly] different aspects of the Mitzvos, according to their abilities and predispositions.




          The idea of the differences between the generations is explained in many sources but it is a subject on its own.






          share|improve this answer













          Here's an explanation you might find satisfactory:



          1. The first difference between the 2 versions is who said it - the first was said by G-d and the second by Moses and as indirect prophecy (it wasn't preceded by "וידבר הק אל משה לאמר" - he described the Decalogue in his own words.


          2. The second is to whom they were said: the first was said to the Generation of the wilderness (דור המדבר), and the second to the Generation of the Land (דור הארץ).


          Because the source and the audiences were different, the message targeted [slightly] different aspects of the Mitzvos, according to their abilities and predispositions.




          The idea of the differences between the generations is explained in many sources but it is a subject on its own.







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered May 12 at 21:19









          Al BerkoAl Berko

          7,4422631




          7,4422631












          • Al BerkoI gave you an upvote for your well written answer. --- But I still do not see how Moses (Moshe) felt it was okay to CHANGE the reason for the Fourth Commandment which was engraven in stone by the finger of God and carried around in the ark of the covenant of the LORD and not indicate that he was not giving a verbatim quote!

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 12 at 23:58












          • Al Berko And especially in the mitzvah of Shabbat!!!

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 13 at 0:25











          • While this is true in general about Mishneh Torah, we have a counter-evidence in the particular case of the Shabbat. Do you have any sources which say that Moses changed the words here for whatever reason?

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 13 at 5:53











          • @Kazibácsi I'm not saying "Moses failed" or "Moses betrayed G-d's word". Chumash Dvorim is not "less sacred" than the first 4. Moses said his prophecy just as the rest of the Torah, but they were different as they targeted a different audience.

            – Al Berko
            May 13 at 11:21











          • I understand your confusion, but we have no clear evidence of what was written on those tablets. Was it a simple text? Could it be read differently (a hologram probably)? Could it have changed as Moses said it differently? Also remember that only Moses had access to those Luchos. :)

            – Al Berko
            May 13 at 11:23

















          • Al BerkoI gave you an upvote for your well written answer. --- But I still do not see how Moses (Moshe) felt it was okay to CHANGE the reason for the Fourth Commandment which was engraven in stone by the finger of God and carried around in the ark of the covenant of the LORD and not indicate that he was not giving a verbatim quote!

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 12 at 23:58












          • Al Berko And especially in the mitzvah of Shabbat!!!

            – Clifford Durousseau
            May 13 at 0:25











          • While this is true in general about Mishneh Torah, we have a counter-evidence in the particular case of the Shabbat. Do you have any sources which say that Moses changed the words here for whatever reason?

            – Kazi bácsi
            May 13 at 5:53











          • @Kazibácsi I'm not saying "Moses failed" or "Moses betrayed G-d's word". Chumash Dvorim is not "less sacred" than the first 4. Moses said his prophecy just as the rest of the Torah, but they were different as they targeted a different audience.

            – Al Berko
            May 13 at 11:21











          • I understand your confusion, but we have no clear evidence of what was written on those tablets. Was it a simple text? Could it be read differently (a hologram probably)? Could it have changed as Moses said it differently? Also remember that only Moses had access to those Luchos. :)

            – Al Berko
            May 13 at 11:23
















          Al BerkoI gave you an upvote for your well written answer. --- But I still do not see how Moses (Moshe) felt it was okay to CHANGE the reason for the Fourth Commandment which was engraven in stone by the finger of God and carried around in the ark of the covenant of the LORD and not indicate that he was not giving a verbatim quote!

          – Clifford Durousseau
          May 12 at 23:58






          Al BerkoI gave you an upvote for your well written answer. --- But I still do not see how Moses (Moshe) felt it was okay to CHANGE the reason for the Fourth Commandment which was engraven in stone by the finger of God and carried around in the ark of the covenant of the LORD and not indicate that he was not giving a verbatim quote!

          – Clifford Durousseau
          May 12 at 23:58














          Al Berko And especially in the mitzvah of Shabbat!!!

          – Clifford Durousseau
          May 13 at 0:25





          Al Berko And especially in the mitzvah of Shabbat!!!

          – Clifford Durousseau
          May 13 at 0:25













          While this is true in general about Mishneh Torah, we have a counter-evidence in the particular case of the Shabbat. Do you have any sources which say that Moses changed the words here for whatever reason?

          – Kazi bácsi
          May 13 at 5:53





          While this is true in general about Mishneh Torah, we have a counter-evidence in the particular case of the Shabbat. Do you have any sources which say that Moses changed the words here for whatever reason?

          – Kazi bácsi
          May 13 at 5:53













          @Kazibácsi I'm not saying "Moses failed" or "Moses betrayed G-d's word". Chumash Dvorim is not "less sacred" than the first 4. Moses said his prophecy just as the rest of the Torah, but they were different as they targeted a different audience.

          – Al Berko
          May 13 at 11:21





          @Kazibácsi I'm not saying "Moses failed" or "Moses betrayed G-d's word". Chumash Dvorim is not "less sacred" than the first 4. Moses said his prophecy just as the rest of the Torah, but they were different as they targeted a different audience.

          – Al Berko
          May 13 at 11:21













          I understand your confusion, but we have no clear evidence of what was written on those tablets. Was it a simple text? Could it be read differently (a hologram probably)? Could it have changed as Moses said it differently? Also remember that only Moses had access to those Luchos. :)

          – Al Berko
          May 13 at 11:23





          I understand your confusion, but we have no clear evidence of what was written on those tablets. Was it a simple text? Could it be read differently (a hologram probably)? Could it have changed as Moses said it differently? Also remember that only Moses had access to those Luchos. :)

          – Al Berko
          May 13 at 11:23



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