Doubt in proof of Euclidean Algorithm Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Clarification on the proof for the Euclidean algorithmproblem with GCD/Euclidean algorithmExtended Euclidean Algorithm, what is our answer?Proving the number of iterations in the Euclidean algorithmEuclidean Algorithm (gcd)Diophantine equations using Euclidean algorithmProof of cardinality of fibres - why finiteness condition?Extended Euclidean Algorithm As Row OperationsEuclidean algorithm matrix proofEuclidean Algorithm Proof

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Doubt in proof of Euclidean Algorithm



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Clarification on the proof for the Euclidean algorithmproblem with GCD/Euclidean algorithmExtended Euclidean Algorithm, what is our answer?Proving the number of iterations in the Euclidean algorithmEuclidean Algorithm (gcd)Diophantine equations using Euclidean algorithmProof of cardinality of fibres - why finiteness condition?Extended Euclidean Algorithm As Row OperationsEuclidean algorithm matrix proofEuclidean Algorithm Proof










2












$begingroup$


I got this text from https://www.math.fsu.edu/~pkirby/mad2104/SlideShow/s5_2.pdf



enter image description here



Is it necessary for the proof to suppose:



"Now suppose $d$ is a common divisor of $b$ and $r$..."



By showing that if $d|a$ and $d|b$ then $d|(a-bq)$ aren't we already showing that the set of common dividers for $a$ and $b$ are the same $r$ and $b$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    No, you've shown that each common divisor of $a$, $b$ is a common divisor of $b$, $r$. You have not yet shown that each common divisor of $b$, $r$ is a common divisor of $a$, $b$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Apr 10 at 13:51










  • $begingroup$
    So ANY divisor of $a$ and $b$ is also a divisor or $r$?
    $endgroup$
    – João Pedro
    Apr 10 at 14:08















2












$begingroup$


I got this text from https://www.math.fsu.edu/~pkirby/mad2104/SlideShow/s5_2.pdf



enter image description here



Is it necessary for the proof to suppose:



"Now suppose $d$ is a common divisor of $b$ and $r$..."



By showing that if $d|a$ and $d|b$ then $d|(a-bq)$ aren't we already showing that the set of common dividers for $a$ and $b$ are the same $r$ and $b$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    No, you've shown that each common divisor of $a$, $b$ is a common divisor of $b$, $r$. You have not yet shown that each common divisor of $b$, $r$ is a common divisor of $a$, $b$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Apr 10 at 13:51










  • $begingroup$
    So ANY divisor of $a$ and $b$ is also a divisor or $r$?
    $endgroup$
    – João Pedro
    Apr 10 at 14:08













2












2








2





$begingroup$


I got this text from https://www.math.fsu.edu/~pkirby/mad2104/SlideShow/s5_2.pdf



enter image description here



Is it necessary for the proof to suppose:



"Now suppose $d$ is a common divisor of $b$ and $r$..."



By showing that if $d|a$ and $d|b$ then $d|(a-bq)$ aren't we already showing that the set of common dividers for $a$ and $b$ are the same $r$ and $b$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I got this text from https://www.math.fsu.edu/~pkirby/mad2104/SlideShow/s5_2.pdf



enter image description here



Is it necessary for the proof to suppose:



"Now suppose $d$ is a common divisor of $b$ and $r$..."



By showing that if $d|a$ and $d|b$ then $d|(a-bq)$ aren't we already showing that the set of common dividers for $a$ and $b$ are the same $r$ and $b$?







proof-explanation euclidean-algorithm






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Apr 10 at 13:46









João PedroJoão Pedro

354118




354118











  • $begingroup$
    No, you've shown that each common divisor of $a$, $b$ is a common divisor of $b$, $r$. You have not yet shown that each common divisor of $b$, $r$ is a common divisor of $a$, $b$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Apr 10 at 13:51










  • $begingroup$
    So ANY divisor of $a$ and $b$ is also a divisor or $r$?
    $endgroup$
    – João Pedro
    Apr 10 at 14:08
















  • $begingroup$
    No, you've shown that each common divisor of $a$, $b$ is a common divisor of $b$, $r$. You have not yet shown that each common divisor of $b$, $r$ is a common divisor of $a$, $b$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Apr 10 at 13:51










  • $begingroup$
    So ANY divisor of $a$ and $b$ is also a divisor or $r$?
    $endgroup$
    – João Pedro
    Apr 10 at 14:08















$begingroup$
No, you've shown that each common divisor of $a$, $b$ is a common divisor of $b$, $r$. You have not yet shown that each common divisor of $b$, $r$ is a common divisor of $a$, $b$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 10 at 13:51




$begingroup$
No, you've shown that each common divisor of $a$, $b$ is a common divisor of $b$, $r$. You have not yet shown that each common divisor of $b$, $r$ is a common divisor of $a$, $b$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Apr 10 at 13:51












$begingroup$
So ANY divisor of $a$ and $b$ is also a divisor or $r$?
$endgroup$
– João Pedro
Apr 10 at 14:08




$begingroup$
So ANY divisor of $a$ and $b$ is also a divisor or $r$?
$endgroup$
– João Pedro
Apr 10 at 14:08










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

Yes. Let $,rm CD(x,y),$ be the set of Common Divisors of $x,y$. The proof works as follows.



Note $ rm CD(a,b) ,subseteq, rm CD(b,r) $ by paragraph $2$ in the proof,



and $ rm CD(a,b), supseteq, rm CD(b,r) $ by paragraph $3$ in the proof.



Thus $, rm CD(a,b), =, rm CD(b,r) $ so they have the same greatest element (= common divisor)



i.e. $ rm GCD(a,b)! =! rm GCD(b,r)$



Note that the proof requires both containment directions (paragraph $2$ and $3$) to deduce the equality of the common divisor sets (hence equality of their greatest elements).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    4












    $begingroup$

    No. By showing that if $dmid a$ and $dmid b$ then $dmid r$, we are showing that$$textcommon dividers of $a$ and $b$subsettextcommon dividers of $b$ and $r$.$$Now, we must prove that the reverse inclusion also holds.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      0












      $begingroup$

      Indeed, the proof shows that any common divisor of $a,b$ is a common divisor of $b,r$ and vice versa.



      Thus $a,b$ and $b,r$ have the same greatest common divisor, where greatest is taken according to the divisibility relation.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes








        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        3












        $begingroup$

        Yes. Let $,rm CD(x,y),$ be the set of Common Divisors of $x,y$. The proof works as follows.



        Note $ rm CD(a,b) ,subseteq, rm CD(b,r) $ by paragraph $2$ in the proof,



        and $ rm CD(a,b), supseteq, rm CD(b,r) $ by paragraph $3$ in the proof.



        Thus $, rm CD(a,b), =, rm CD(b,r) $ so they have the same greatest element (= common divisor)



        i.e. $ rm GCD(a,b)! =! rm GCD(b,r)$



        Note that the proof requires both containment directions (paragraph $2$ and $3$) to deduce the equality of the common divisor sets (hence equality of their greatest elements).






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$

















          3












          $begingroup$

          Yes. Let $,rm CD(x,y),$ be the set of Common Divisors of $x,y$. The proof works as follows.



          Note $ rm CD(a,b) ,subseteq, rm CD(b,r) $ by paragraph $2$ in the proof,



          and $ rm CD(a,b), supseteq, rm CD(b,r) $ by paragraph $3$ in the proof.



          Thus $, rm CD(a,b), =, rm CD(b,r) $ so they have the same greatest element (= common divisor)



          i.e. $ rm GCD(a,b)! =! rm GCD(b,r)$



          Note that the proof requires both containment directions (paragraph $2$ and $3$) to deduce the equality of the common divisor sets (hence equality of their greatest elements).






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$















            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            Yes. Let $,rm CD(x,y),$ be the set of Common Divisors of $x,y$. The proof works as follows.



            Note $ rm CD(a,b) ,subseteq, rm CD(b,r) $ by paragraph $2$ in the proof,



            and $ rm CD(a,b), supseteq, rm CD(b,r) $ by paragraph $3$ in the proof.



            Thus $, rm CD(a,b), =, rm CD(b,r) $ so they have the same greatest element (= common divisor)



            i.e. $ rm GCD(a,b)! =! rm GCD(b,r)$



            Note that the proof requires both containment directions (paragraph $2$ and $3$) to deduce the equality of the common divisor sets (hence equality of their greatest elements).






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Yes. Let $,rm CD(x,y),$ be the set of Common Divisors of $x,y$. The proof works as follows.



            Note $ rm CD(a,b) ,subseteq, rm CD(b,r) $ by paragraph $2$ in the proof,



            and $ rm CD(a,b), supseteq, rm CD(b,r) $ by paragraph $3$ in the proof.



            Thus $, rm CD(a,b), =, rm CD(b,r) $ so they have the same greatest element (= common divisor)



            i.e. $ rm GCD(a,b)! =! rm GCD(b,r)$



            Note that the proof requires both containment directions (paragraph $2$ and $3$) to deduce the equality of the common divisor sets (hence equality of their greatest elements).







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Apr 10 at 14:31

























            answered Apr 10 at 14:24









            Bill DubuqueBill Dubuque

            214k29197659




            214k29197659





















                4












                $begingroup$

                No. By showing that if $dmid a$ and $dmid b$ then $dmid r$, we are showing that$$textcommon dividers of $a$ and $b$subsettextcommon dividers of $b$ and $r$.$$Now, we must prove that the reverse inclusion also holds.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  4












                  $begingroup$

                  No. By showing that if $dmid a$ and $dmid b$ then $dmid r$, we are showing that$$textcommon dividers of $a$ and $b$subsettextcommon dividers of $b$ and $r$.$$Now, we must prove that the reverse inclusion also holds.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$















                    4












                    4








                    4





                    $begingroup$

                    No. By showing that if $dmid a$ and $dmid b$ then $dmid r$, we are showing that$$textcommon dividers of $a$ and $b$subsettextcommon dividers of $b$ and $r$.$$Now, we must prove that the reverse inclusion also holds.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    No. By showing that if $dmid a$ and $dmid b$ then $dmid r$, we are showing that$$textcommon dividers of $a$ and $b$subsettextcommon dividers of $b$ and $r$.$$Now, we must prove that the reverse inclusion also holds.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Apr 10 at 13:49









                    José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

                    175k24134243




                    175k24134243





















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Indeed, the proof shows that any common divisor of $a,b$ is a common divisor of $b,r$ and vice versa.



                        Thus $a,b$ and $b,r$ have the same greatest common divisor, where greatest is taken according to the divisibility relation.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$

















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          Indeed, the proof shows that any common divisor of $a,b$ is a common divisor of $b,r$ and vice versa.



                          Thus $a,b$ and $b,r$ have the same greatest common divisor, where greatest is taken according to the divisibility relation.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            Indeed, the proof shows that any common divisor of $a,b$ is a common divisor of $b,r$ and vice versa.



                            Thus $a,b$ and $b,r$ have the same greatest common divisor, where greatest is taken according to the divisibility relation.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            Indeed, the proof shows that any common divisor of $a,b$ is a common divisor of $b,r$ and vice versa.



                            Thus $a,b$ and $b,r$ have the same greatest common divisor, where greatest is taken according to the divisibility relation.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Apr 10 at 13:54









                            WuestenfuxWuestenfux

                            5,5581513




                            5,5581513



























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