Adjusted R2 for model with only one independent variable?Justification for and optimality of $R^2_adj.$ as a model selection criterionIs a partial F-Test on a model reduced by only one variable valid?How to report the results of cross-validation for comparing two models?Better Quantitative Measure of Predictor “Relevance” than p-values?R-squared or adjusted R-squared to use when comparing nested models?anova() for model comparision _ RegressionModel selection for dependent variablesNon-linear fitting with uncertainty in dependent and independent variableNo intercept model with more than one factorThe only model with a lower AIC than my null model has no control variablesRight model approach for repeated observations
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Adjusted R2 for model with only one independent variable?
Justification for and optimality of $R^2_adj.$ as a model selection criterionIs a partial F-Test on a model reduced by only one variable valid?How to report the results of cross-validation for comparing two models?Better Quantitative Measure of Predictor “Relevance” than p-values?R-squared or adjusted R-squared to use when comparing nested models?anova() for model comparision _ RegressionModel selection for dependent variablesNon-linear fitting with uncertainty in dependent and independent variableNo intercept model with more than one factorThe only model with a lower AIC than my null model has no control variablesRight model approach for repeated observations
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
$begingroup$
Adjusted R2 is said to be more unbiased than ordinary R2 as it takes the number of explanatory variables into account.
Can adjusted R2 be used in a model with only an intercept and one independent variable?
Following this, let's say we want to compare two nested linear models, one with 1 independent variable and the other adding an additional variable. I gather that adjusted R2 should be calculated for the bigger model, but should this be compared with the smaller model's ordinary or adjusted R2?
multiple-regression model-selection goodness-of-fit r-squared
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Adjusted R2 is said to be more unbiased than ordinary R2 as it takes the number of explanatory variables into account.
Can adjusted R2 be used in a model with only an intercept and one independent variable?
Following this, let's say we want to compare two nested linear models, one with 1 independent variable and the other adding an additional variable. I gather that adjusted R2 should be calculated for the bigger model, but should this be compared with the smaller model's ordinary or adjusted R2?
multiple-regression model-selection goodness-of-fit r-squared
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
$R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
$endgroup$
– Richard Hardy
May 14 at 10:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Adjusted R2 is said to be more unbiased than ordinary R2 as it takes the number of explanatory variables into account.
Can adjusted R2 be used in a model with only an intercept and one independent variable?
Following this, let's say we want to compare two nested linear models, one with 1 independent variable and the other adding an additional variable. I gather that adjusted R2 should be calculated for the bigger model, but should this be compared with the smaller model's ordinary or adjusted R2?
multiple-regression model-selection goodness-of-fit r-squared
$endgroup$
Adjusted R2 is said to be more unbiased than ordinary R2 as it takes the number of explanatory variables into account.
Can adjusted R2 be used in a model with only an intercept and one independent variable?
Following this, let's say we want to compare two nested linear models, one with 1 independent variable and the other adding an additional variable. I gather that adjusted R2 should be calculated for the bigger model, but should this be compared with the smaller model's ordinary or adjusted R2?
multiple-regression model-selection goodness-of-fit r-squared
multiple-regression model-selection goodness-of-fit r-squared
edited May 14 at 10:11
Richard Hardy
28.6k647134
28.6k647134
asked May 14 at 8:38
user31527user31527
355
355
1
$begingroup$
$R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
$endgroup$
– Richard Hardy
May 14 at 10:13
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
$R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
$endgroup$
– Richard Hardy
May 14 at 10:13
1
1
$begingroup$
$R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
$endgroup$
– Richard Hardy
May 14 at 10:13
$begingroup$
$R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
$endgroup$
– Richard Hardy
May 14 at 10:13
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
With only one (or only a few) predictor variables, the adjusted R-squared can be used, but it will not be very different from the unadjusted R-square, so it doesn't really matter. The adjustment was invented as a solution to problems caused by variable selection, so if you are not doing variable selection it isn't necessary.
But, if you are using R-square to compare models, you should use the same version in all cases. So maybe just stay with adjusted R-square.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Some additional notes to what has been said so far.
Note that $R^2$ can not decrease if one adds new variable but only increase. So even if you would add random variables $R^2$ can become quite high. See the following example from the R code:
set.seed(10) # make the example reproducible
n <- 100 # sample size
k <- 20 # number of predictors
df <- data.frame(y= rnorm(n), matrix(rnorm(n*(k)), ncol= k)) # generate some *random* data
summary(lm(y ~ ., data= df)) # fit a regression model
# results
# Multiple R-squared: 0.2358
# Adjusted R-squared: 0.0423
$R^2$ is 0.2358% which is way too high if we keep in mind that we used only random variables. On the other hand, the $R^2_adj$ is 0.0423 which is much closer to what we would expect should happen if we use random variables.
This is great but if you use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables, keep in mind that $R^2_adj$ can have negative values. See here:
radj <- rep(NA, ncol(df) - 1) # vector for results
for(i in 2:ncol(df)) # determine radj for every x
radj[i-1] <- summary(lm(y ~ df[ , i], data=df))$adj.r.squared
sum(radj < 0) # number of negative radj
# 11
In this example 11 of 20 predictors have a negative $R^2_adj$. I agree with the suggestion of @kjetil b halvorsen (+1). I just want to point out this property of $R^2_adj$ which you might encounter since you want to use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables and because a negative value might be confusing at first.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
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$begingroup$
With only one (or only a few) predictor variables, the adjusted R-squared can be used, but it will not be very different from the unadjusted R-square, so it doesn't really matter. The adjustment was invented as a solution to problems caused by variable selection, so if you are not doing variable selection it isn't necessary.
But, if you are using R-square to compare models, you should use the same version in all cases. So maybe just stay with adjusted R-square.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
With only one (or only a few) predictor variables, the adjusted R-squared can be used, but it will not be very different from the unadjusted R-square, so it doesn't really matter. The adjustment was invented as a solution to problems caused by variable selection, so if you are not doing variable selection it isn't necessary.
But, if you are using R-square to compare models, you should use the same version in all cases. So maybe just stay with adjusted R-square.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
With only one (or only a few) predictor variables, the adjusted R-squared can be used, but it will not be very different from the unadjusted R-square, so it doesn't really matter. The adjustment was invented as a solution to problems caused by variable selection, so if you are not doing variable selection it isn't necessary.
But, if you are using R-square to compare models, you should use the same version in all cases. So maybe just stay with adjusted R-square.
$endgroup$
With only one (or only a few) predictor variables, the adjusted R-squared can be used, but it will not be very different from the unadjusted R-square, so it doesn't really matter. The adjustment was invented as a solution to problems caused by variable selection, so if you are not doing variable selection it isn't necessary.
But, if you are using R-square to compare models, you should use the same version in all cases. So maybe just stay with adjusted R-square.
answered May 14 at 9:20
kjetil b halvorsenkjetil b halvorsen
33.8k987257
33.8k987257
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Some additional notes to what has been said so far.
Note that $R^2$ can not decrease if one adds new variable but only increase. So even if you would add random variables $R^2$ can become quite high. See the following example from the R code:
set.seed(10) # make the example reproducible
n <- 100 # sample size
k <- 20 # number of predictors
df <- data.frame(y= rnorm(n), matrix(rnorm(n*(k)), ncol= k)) # generate some *random* data
summary(lm(y ~ ., data= df)) # fit a regression model
# results
# Multiple R-squared: 0.2358
# Adjusted R-squared: 0.0423
$R^2$ is 0.2358% which is way too high if we keep in mind that we used only random variables. On the other hand, the $R^2_adj$ is 0.0423 which is much closer to what we would expect should happen if we use random variables.
This is great but if you use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables, keep in mind that $R^2_adj$ can have negative values. See here:
radj <- rep(NA, ncol(df) - 1) # vector for results
for(i in 2:ncol(df)) # determine radj for every x
radj[i-1] <- summary(lm(y ~ df[ , i], data=df))$adj.r.squared
sum(radj < 0) # number of negative radj
# 11
In this example 11 of 20 predictors have a negative $R^2_adj$. I agree with the suggestion of @kjetil b halvorsen (+1). I just want to point out this property of $R^2_adj$ which you might encounter since you want to use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables and because a negative value might be confusing at first.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Some additional notes to what has been said so far.
Note that $R^2$ can not decrease if one adds new variable but only increase. So even if you would add random variables $R^2$ can become quite high. See the following example from the R code:
set.seed(10) # make the example reproducible
n <- 100 # sample size
k <- 20 # number of predictors
df <- data.frame(y= rnorm(n), matrix(rnorm(n*(k)), ncol= k)) # generate some *random* data
summary(lm(y ~ ., data= df)) # fit a regression model
# results
# Multiple R-squared: 0.2358
# Adjusted R-squared: 0.0423
$R^2$ is 0.2358% which is way too high if we keep in mind that we used only random variables. On the other hand, the $R^2_adj$ is 0.0423 which is much closer to what we would expect should happen if we use random variables.
This is great but if you use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables, keep in mind that $R^2_adj$ can have negative values. See here:
radj <- rep(NA, ncol(df) - 1) # vector for results
for(i in 2:ncol(df)) # determine radj for every x
radj[i-1] <- summary(lm(y ~ df[ , i], data=df))$adj.r.squared
sum(radj < 0) # number of negative radj
# 11
In this example 11 of 20 predictors have a negative $R^2_adj$. I agree with the suggestion of @kjetil b halvorsen (+1). I just want to point out this property of $R^2_adj$ which you might encounter since you want to use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables and because a negative value might be confusing at first.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Some additional notes to what has been said so far.
Note that $R^2$ can not decrease if one adds new variable but only increase. So even if you would add random variables $R^2$ can become quite high. See the following example from the R code:
set.seed(10) # make the example reproducible
n <- 100 # sample size
k <- 20 # number of predictors
df <- data.frame(y= rnorm(n), matrix(rnorm(n*(k)), ncol= k)) # generate some *random* data
summary(lm(y ~ ., data= df)) # fit a regression model
# results
# Multiple R-squared: 0.2358
# Adjusted R-squared: 0.0423
$R^2$ is 0.2358% which is way too high if we keep in mind that we used only random variables. On the other hand, the $R^2_adj$ is 0.0423 which is much closer to what we would expect should happen if we use random variables.
This is great but if you use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables, keep in mind that $R^2_adj$ can have negative values. See here:
radj <- rep(NA, ncol(df) - 1) # vector for results
for(i in 2:ncol(df)) # determine radj for every x
radj[i-1] <- summary(lm(y ~ df[ , i], data=df))$adj.r.squared
sum(radj < 0) # number of negative radj
# 11
In this example 11 of 20 predictors have a negative $R^2_adj$. I agree with the suggestion of @kjetil b halvorsen (+1). I just want to point out this property of $R^2_adj$ which you might encounter since you want to use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables and because a negative value might be confusing at first.
$endgroup$
Some additional notes to what has been said so far.
Note that $R^2$ can not decrease if one adds new variable but only increase. So even if you would add random variables $R^2$ can become quite high. See the following example from the R code:
set.seed(10) # make the example reproducible
n <- 100 # sample size
k <- 20 # number of predictors
df <- data.frame(y= rnorm(n), matrix(rnorm(n*(k)), ncol= k)) # generate some *random* data
summary(lm(y ~ ., data= df)) # fit a regression model
# results
# Multiple R-squared: 0.2358
# Adjusted R-squared: 0.0423
$R^2$ is 0.2358% which is way too high if we keep in mind that we used only random variables. On the other hand, the $R^2_adj$ is 0.0423 which is much closer to what we would expect should happen if we use random variables.
This is great but if you use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables, keep in mind that $R^2_adj$ can have negative values. See here:
radj <- rep(NA, ncol(df) - 1) # vector for results
for(i in 2:ncol(df)) # determine radj for every x
radj[i-1] <- summary(lm(y ~ df[ , i], data=df))$adj.r.squared
sum(radj < 0) # number of negative radj
# 11
In this example 11 of 20 predictors have a negative $R^2_adj$. I agree with the suggestion of @kjetil b halvorsen (+1). I just want to point out this property of $R^2_adj$ which you might encounter since you want to use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables and because a negative value might be confusing at first.
answered May 14 at 10:13
boulderboulder
1214
1214
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
$R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
$endgroup$
– Richard Hardy
May 14 at 10:13