Adjusted R2 for model with only one independent variable?Justification for and optimality of $R^2_adj.$ as a model selection criterionIs a partial F-Test on a model reduced by only one variable valid?How to report the results of cross-validation for comparing two models?Better Quantitative Measure of Predictor “Relevance” than p-values?R-squared or adjusted R-squared to use when comparing nested models?anova() for model comparision _ RegressionModel selection for dependent variablesNon-linear fitting with uncertainty in dependent and independent variableNo intercept model with more than one factorThe only model with a lower AIC than my null model has no control variablesRight model approach for repeated observations

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Adjusted R2 for model with only one independent variable?


Justification for and optimality of $R^2_adj.$ as a model selection criterionIs a partial F-Test on a model reduced by only one variable valid?How to report the results of cross-validation for comparing two models?Better Quantitative Measure of Predictor “Relevance” than p-values?R-squared or adjusted R-squared to use when comparing nested models?anova() for model comparision _ RegressionModel selection for dependent variablesNon-linear fitting with uncertainty in dependent and independent variableNo intercept model with more than one factorThe only model with a lower AIC than my null model has no control variablesRight model approach for repeated observations






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








2












$begingroup$


Adjusted R2 is said to be more unbiased than ordinary R2 as it takes the number of explanatory variables into account.



Can adjusted R2 be used in a model with only an intercept and one independent variable?



Following this, let's say we want to compare two nested linear models, one with 1 independent variable and the other adding an additional variable. I gather that adjusted R2 should be calculated for the bigger model, but should this be compared with the smaller model's ordinary or adjusted R2?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
    $endgroup$
    – Richard Hardy
    May 14 at 10:13


















2












$begingroup$


Adjusted R2 is said to be more unbiased than ordinary R2 as it takes the number of explanatory variables into account.



Can adjusted R2 be used in a model with only an intercept and one independent variable?



Following this, let's say we want to compare two nested linear models, one with 1 independent variable and the other adding an additional variable. I gather that adjusted R2 should be calculated for the bigger model, but should this be compared with the smaller model's ordinary or adjusted R2?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
    $endgroup$
    – Richard Hardy
    May 14 at 10:13














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Adjusted R2 is said to be more unbiased than ordinary R2 as it takes the number of explanatory variables into account.



Can adjusted R2 be used in a model with only an intercept and one independent variable?



Following this, let's say we want to compare two nested linear models, one with 1 independent variable and the other adding an additional variable. I gather that adjusted R2 should be calculated for the bigger model, but should this be compared with the smaller model's ordinary or adjusted R2?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Adjusted R2 is said to be more unbiased than ordinary R2 as it takes the number of explanatory variables into account.



Can adjusted R2 be used in a model with only an intercept and one independent variable?



Following this, let's say we want to compare two nested linear models, one with 1 independent variable and the other adding an additional variable. I gather that adjusted R2 should be calculated for the bigger model, but should this be compared with the smaller model's ordinary or adjusted R2?







multiple-regression model-selection goodness-of-fit r-squared






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited May 14 at 10:11









Richard Hardy

28.6k647134




28.6k647134










asked May 14 at 8:38









user31527user31527

355




355







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
    $endgroup$
    – Richard Hardy
    May 14 at 10:13













  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
    $endgroup$
    – Richard Hardy
    May 14 at 10:13








1




1




$begingroup$
$R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
$endgroup$
– Richard Hardy
May 14 at 10:13





$begingroup$
$R^2_adj.$ is an unbiased estimator of the population $R^2$ under the null hypothesis that all the variables have zero slopes in population, which is not a very interesting case. $R^2_adj.$ is not necessarily unbiased in other, more interesting cases, and whether one should prefer $R^2_adj.$ to $R^2$ or not depends on the true slopes.
$endgroup$
– Richard Hardy
May 14 at 10:13











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

With only one (or only a few) predictor variables, the adjusted R-squared can be used, but it will not be very different from the unadjusted R-square, so it doesn't really matter. The adjustment was invented as a solution to problems caused by variable selection, so if you are not doing variable selection it isn't necessary.



But, if you are using R-square to compare models, you should use the same version in all cases. So maybe just stay with adjusted R-square.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    1












    $begingroup$

    Some additional notes to what has been said so far.



    Note that $R^2$ can not decrease if one adds new variable but only increase. So even if you would add random variables $R^2$ can become quite high. See the following example from the R code:



    set.seed(10) # make the example reproducible
    n <- 100 # sample size
    k <- 20 # number of predictors
    df <- data.frame(y= rnorm(n), matrix(rnorm(n*(k)), ncol= k)) # generate some *random* data
    summary(lm(y ~ ., data= df)) # fit a regression model

    # results
    # Multiple R-squared: 0.2358
    # Adjusted R-squared: 0.0423


    $R^2$ is 0.2358% which is way too high if we keep in mind that we used only random variables. On the other hand, the $R^2_adj$ is 0.0423 which is much closer to what we would expect should happen if we use random variables.



    This is great but if you use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables, keep in mind that $R^2_adj$ can have negative values. See here:



    radj <- rep(NA, ncol(df) - 1) # vector for results
    for(i in 2:ncol(df)) # determine radj for every x
    radj[i-1] <- summary(lm(y ~ df[ , i], data=df))$adj.r.squared


    sum(radj < 0) # number of negative radj
    # 11


    In this example 11 of 20 predictors have a negative $R^2_adj$. I agree with the suggestion of @kjetil b halvorsen (+1). I just want to point out this property of $R^2_adj$ which you might encounter since you want to use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables and because a negative value might be confusing at first.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
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      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      With only one (or only a few) predictor variables, the adjusted R-squared can be used, but it will not be very different from the unadjusted R-square, so it doesn't really matter. The adjustment was invented as a solution to problems caused by variable selection, so if you are not doing variable selection it isn't necessary.



      But, if you are using R-square to compare models, you should use the same version in all cases. So maybe just stay with adjusted R-square.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$

















        1












        $begingroup$

        With only one (or only a few) predictor variables, the adjusted R-squared can be used, but it will not be very different from the unadjusted R-square, so it doesn't really matter. The adjustment was invented as a solution to problems caused by variable selection, so if you are not doing variable selection it isn't necessary.



        But, if you are using R-square to compare models, you should use the same version in all cases. So maybe just stay with adjusted R-square.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          With only one (or only a few) predictor variables, the adjusted R-squared can be used, but it will not be very different from the unadjusted R-square, so it doesn't really matter. The adjustment was invented as a solution to problems caused by variable selection, so if you are not doing variable selection it isn't necessary.



          But, if you are using R-square to compare models, you should use the same version in all cases. So maybe just stay with adjusted R-square.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          With only one (or only a few) predictor variables, the adjusted R-squared can be used, but it will not be very different from the unadjusted R-square, so it doesn't really matter. The adjustment was invented as a solution to problems caused by variable selection, so if you are not doing variable selection it isn't necessary.



          But, if you are using R-square to compare models, you should use the same version in all cases. So maybe just stay with adjusted R-square.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered May 14 at 9:20









          kjetil b halvorsenkjetil b halvorsen

          33.8k987257




          33.8k987257























              1












              $begingroup$

              Some additional notes to what has been said so far.



              Note that $R^2$ can not decrease if one adds new variable but only increase. So even if you would add random variables $R^2$ can become quite high. See the following example from the R code:



              set.seed(10) # make the example reproducible
              n <- 100 # sample size
              k <- 20 # number of predictors
              df <- data.frame(y= rnorm(n), matrix(rnorm(n*(k)), ncol= k)) # generate some *random* data
              summary(lm(y ~ ., data= df)) # fit a regression model

              # results
              # Multiple R-squared: 0.2358
              # Adjusted R-squared: 0.0423


              $R^2$ is 0.2358% which is way too high if we keep in mind that we used only random variables. On the other hand, the $R^2_adj$ is 0.0423 which is much closer to what we would expect should happen if we use random variables.



              This is great but if you use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables, keep in mind that $R^2_adj$ can have negative values. See here:



              radj <- rep(NA, ncol(df) - 1) # vector for results
              for(i in 2:ncol(df)) # determine radj for every x
              radj[i-1] <- summary(lm(y ~ df[ , i], data=df))$adj.r.squared


              sum(radj < 0) # number of negative radj
              # 11


              In this example 11 of 20 predictors have a negative $R^2_adj$. I agree with the suggestion of @kjetil b halvorsen (+1). I just want to point out this property of $R^2_adj$ which you might encounter since you want to use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables and because a negative value might be confusing at first.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                1












                $begingroup$

                Some additional notes to what has been said so far.



                Note that $R^2$ can not decrease if one adds new variable but only increase. So even if you would add random variables $R^2$ can become quite high. See the following example from the R code:



                set.seed(10) # make the example reproducible
                n <- 100 # sample size
                k <- 20 # number of predictors
                df <- data.frame(y= rnorm(n), matrix(rnorm(n*(k)), ncol= k)) # generate some *random* data
                summary(lm(y ~ ., data= df)) # fit a regression model

                # results
                # Multiple R-squared: 0.2358
                # Adjusted R-squared: 0.0423


                $R^2$ is 0.2358% which is way too high if we keep in mind that we used only random variables. On the other hand, the $R^2_adj$ is 0.0423 which is much closer to what we would expect should happen if we use random variables.



                This is great but if you use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables, keep in mind that $R^2_adj$ can have negative values. See here:



                radj <- rep(NA, ncol(df) - 1) # vector for results
                for(i in 2:ncol(df)) # determine radj for every x
                radj[i-1] <- summary(lm(y ~ df[ , i], data=df))$adj.r.squared


                sum(radj < 0) # number of negative radj
                # 11


                In this example 11 of 20 predictors have a negative $R^2_adj$. I agree with the suggestion of @kjetil b halvorsen (+1). I just want to point out this property of $R^2_adj$ which you might encounter since you want to use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables and because a negative value might be confusing at first.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Some additional notes to what has been said so far.



                  Note that $R^2$ can not decrease if one adds new variable but only increase. So even if you would add random variables $R^2$ can become quite high. See the following example from the R code:



                  set.seed(10) # make the example reproducible
                  n <- 100 # sample size
                  k <- 20 # number of predictors
                  df <- data.frame(y= rnorm(n), matrix(rnorm(n*(k)), ncol= k)) # generate some *random* data
                  summary(lm(y ~ ., data= df)) # fit a regression model

                  # results
                  # Multiple R-squared: 0.2358
                  # Adjusted R-squared: 0.0423


                  $R^2$ is 0.2358% which is way too high if we keep in mind that we used only random variables. On the other hand, the $R^2_adj$ is 0.0423 which is much closer to what we would expect should happen if we use random variables.



                  This is great but if you use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables, keep in mind that $R^2_adj$ can have negative values. See here:



                  radj <- rep(NA, ncol(df) - 1) # vector for results
                  for(i in 2:ncol(df)) # determine radj for every x
                  radj[i-1] <- summary(lm(y ~ df[ , i], data=df))$adj.r.squared


                  sum(radj < 0) # number of negative radj
                  # 11


                  In this example 11 of 20 predictors have a negative $R^2_adj$. I agree with the suggestion of @kjetil b halvorsen (+1). I just want to point out this property of $R^2_adj$ which you might encounter since you want to use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables and because a negative value might be confusing at first.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Some additional notes to what has been said so far.



                  Note that $R^2$ can not decrease if one adds new variable but only increase. So even if you would add random variables $R^2$ can become quite high. See the following example from the R code:



                  set.seed(10) # make the example reproducible
                  n <- 100 # sample size
                  k <- 20 # number of predictors
                  df <- data.frame(y= rnorm(n), matrix(rnorm(n*(k)), ncol= k)) # generate some *random* data
                  summary(lm(y ~ ., data= df)) # fit a regression model

                  # results
                  # Multiple R-squared: 0.2358
                  # Adjusted R-squared: 0.0423


                  $R^2$ is 0.2358% which is way too high if we keep in mind that we used only random variables. On the other hand, the $R^2_adj$ is 0.0423 which is much closer to what we would expect should happen if we use random variables.



                  This is great but if you use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables, keep in mind that $R^2_adj$ can have negative values. See here:



                  radj <- rep(NA, ncol(df) - 1) # vector for results
                  for(i in 2:ncol(df)) # determine radj for every x
                  radj[i-1] <- summary(lm(y ~ df[ , i], data=df))$adj.r.squared


                  sum(radj < 0) # number of negative radj
                  # 11


                  In this example 11 of 20 predictors have a negative $R^2_adj$. I agree with the suggestion of @kjetil b halvorsen (+1). I just want to point out this property of $R^2_adj$ which you might encounter since you want to use $R^2_adj$ for a few variables and because a negative value might be confusing at first.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered May 14 at 10:13









                  boulderboulder

                  1214




                  1214



























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