Reduction from Exact Cover to Fixed Exact CoverDecision vs Optimization version for Problems of two ParametersHow to prove the NP-completeness of the ``Exact-3D-Matching`` problem by reducing the ``3-Partition`` problem to it?Log-Space Reduction $CO-2Col le_L USTCON$Need Help Reducing Subset Sum to Show a Problem is NP-CompleteReducing Exact Cover to Subset SumIs this a proof that SET COVER is not an NP-hard problem?Is the exact cover problem NP-hard when there is a restriction on the size?Reduction from Vertex CoverReduce EXACT 3-SET COVER to a Crossword PuzzleReducing Exact Cover to Subset Sum in practise!

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Reduction from Exact Cover to Fixed Exact Cover


Decision vs Optimization version for Problems of two ParametersHow to prove the NP-completeness of the ``Exact-3D-Matching`` problem by reducing the ``3-Partition`` problem to it?Log-Space Reduction $CO-2Col le_L USTCON$Need Help Reducing Subset Sum to Show a Problem is NP-CompleteReducing Exact Cover to Subset SumIs this a proof that SET COVER is not an NP-hard problem?Is the exact cover problem NP-hard when there is a restriction on the size?Reduction from Vertex CoverReduce EXACT 3-SET COVER to a Crossword PuzzleReducing Exact Cover to Subset Sum in practise!













5












$begingroup$


I am trying to reduce Exact Cover to Fixed Exact Cover to show that Fixed Exact Cover is NP-Hard.



Exact Cover



Input



S = x1, x2, ..., xn (set)



P = P1, P2, ..., Pm (subsets of S)



Decision problem: Is there a subset Pi1,Pi2,...,Piq of P such that every element of S belongs to exactly one of the Pij:s?



Fixed Exact Cover



Input
S, P from Exact Cover, and an integer K



Decision problem: Is there a subset Pi1,Pi2,...,Pik of P of size K such that every element of S belongs to exactly one of the Pij:s?



Given hint: K = n + 1



My initial reaction is to iterate through each element in S, and for each element create a subset for P. However, that will result result in K being one too small. I have tried many things, but I just can't seem to figure it out.



EDIT



Sorry I should have added this in the original question:
(All the Pij :s are assumed to be distinct.)
Furthermore, (we can define an instance (S′,P′,K=n+1) of FSEC. S′ will be S ∪ A and P′ will be F ∪ G where A and G are ”dummy” sets disjoint from S and P and such that the elements of G are subsets of A. If A and G are chosen in a clever way (S,P) will have an exact cover if and only if (S′,P′) has a n+1 size cover)



Example



S = 1,2,3,4



P = 1, 2,3, 2,4, 4



Solution



1, 2,3,4 (size 3)



K = 5



S' = 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8



P' = 1, 2,3, 2,4, 4, 5, 6,7,8, 5,6,5,6,7, 5,6,7,8



Solution = 1, 2,3, 4, 5,6,7, 8 (size 5)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    5












    $begingroup$


    I am trying to reduce Exact Cover to Fixed Exact Cover to show that Fixed Exact Cover is NP-Hard.



    Exact Cover



    Input



    S = x1, x2, ..., xn (set)



    P = P1, P2, ..., Pm (subsets of S)



    Decision problem: Is there a subset Pi1,Pi2,...,Piq of P such that every element of S belongs to exactly one of the Pij:s?



    Fixed Exact Cover



    Input
    S, P from Exact Cover, and an integer K



    Decision problem: Is there a subset Pi1,Pi2,...,Pik of P of size K such that every element of S belongs to exactly one of the Pij:s?



    Given hint: K = n + 1



    My initial reaction is to iterate through each element in S, and for each element create a subset for P. However, that will result result in K being one too small. I have tried many things, but I just can't seem to figure it out.



    EDIT



    Sorry I should have added this in the original question:
    (All the Pij :s are assumed to be distinct.)
    Furthermore, (we can define an instance (S′,P′,K=n+1) of FSEC. S′ will be S ∪ A and P′ will be F ∪ G where A and G are ”dummy” sets disjoint from S and P and such that the elements of G are subsets of A. If A and G are chosen in a clever way (S,P) will have an exact cover if and only if (S′,P′) has a n+1 size cover)



    Example



    S = 1,2,3,4



    P = 1, 2,3, 2,4, 4



    Solution



    1, 2,3,4 (size 3)



    K = 5



    S' = 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8



    P' = 1, 2,3, 2,4, 4, 5, 6,7,8, 5,6,5,6,7, 5,6,7,8



    Solution = 1, 2,3, 4, 5,6,7, 8 (size 5)










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      5












      5








      5


      1



      $begingroup$


      I am trying to reduce Exact Cover to Fixed Exact Cover to show that Fixed Exact Cover is NP-Hard.



      Exact Cover



      Input



      S = x1, x2, ..., xn (set)



      P = P1, P2, ..., Pm (subsets of S)



      Decision problem: Is there a subset Pi1,Pi2,...,Piq of P such that every element of S belongs to exactly one of the Pij:s?



      Fixed Exact Cover



      Input
      S, P from Exact Cover, and an integer K



      Decision problem: Is there a subset Pi1,Pi2,...,Pik of P of size K such that every element of S belongs to exactly one of the Pij:s?



      Given hint: K = n + 1



      My initial reaction is to iterate through each element in S, and for each element create a subset for P. However, that will result result in K being one too small. I have tried many things, but I just can't seem to figure it out.



      EDIT



      Sorry I should have added this in the original question:
      (All the Pij :s are assumed to be distinct.)
      Furthermore, (we can define an instance (S′,P′,K=n+1) of FSEC. S′ will be S ∪ A and P′ will be F ∪ G where A and G are ”dummy” sets disjoint from S and P and such that the elements of G are subsets of A. If A and G are chosen in a clever way (S,P) will have an exact cover if and only if (S′,P′) has a n+1 size cover)



      Example



      S = 1,2,3,4



      P = 1, 2,3, 2,4, 4



      Solution



      1, 2,3,4 (size 3)



      K = 5



      S' = 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8



      P' = 1, 2,3, 2,4, 4, 5, 6,7,8, 5,6,5,6,7, 5,6,7,8



      Solution = 1, 2,3, 4, 5,6,7, 8 (size 5)










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I am trying to reduce Exact Cover to Fixed Exact Cover to show that Fixed Exact Cover is NP-Hard.



      Exact Cover



      Input



      S = x1, x2, ..., xn (set)



      P = P1, P2, ..., Pm (subsets of S)



      Decision problem: Is there a subset Pi1,Pi2,...,Piq of P such that every element of S belongs to exactly one of the Pij:s?



      Fixed Exact Cover



      Input
      S, P from Exact Cover, and an integer K



      Decision problem: Is there a subset Pi1,Pi2,...,Pik of P of size K such that every element of S belongs to exactly one of the Pij:s?



      Given hint: K = n + 1



      My initial reaction is to iterate through each element in S, and for each element create a subset for P. However, that will result result in K being one too small. I have tried many things, but I just can't seem to figure it out.



      EDIT



      Sorry I should have added this in the original question:
      (All the Pij :s are assumed to be distinct.)
      Furthermore, (we can define an instance (S′,P′,K=n+1) of FSEC. S′ will be S ∪ A and P′ will be F ∪ G where A and G are ”dummy” sets disjoint from S and P and such that the elements of G are subsets of A. If A and G are chosen in a clever way (S,P) will have an exact cover if and only if (S′,P′) has a n+1 size cover)



      Example



      S = 1,2,3,4



      P = 1, 2,3, 2,4, 4



      Solution



      1, 2,3,4 (size 3)



      K = 5



      S' = 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8



      P' = 1, 2,3, 2,4, 4, 5, 6,7,8, 5,6,5,6,7, 5,6,7,8



      Solution = 1, 2,3, 4, 5,6,7, 8 (size 5)







      reductions np-hard






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited May 26 at 14:39







      red31

















      asked May 25 at 11:20









      red31red31

      1326




      1326




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          5












          $begingroup$

          Add $n$ empty sets, and choose $K = n + 1$. Every solution for the original problem is (without loss of generality) of size between $1$ to $n$, so using the empty sets you can complete it to a solution of size exactly $K$.



          If you're determined to have your collection duplicate-free, add $n$ new elements $y_1,ldots,y_n$, and the following sets:
          $$
          y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n,y_1,y_2,y_1,y_2,y_3,ldots,y_1,ldots,y_n.
          $$

          There are exact covers of the new elements of any size from $1$ to $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I have edited the question, to make it more clear. Sorry for the confusion.
            $endgroup$
            – red31
            May 26 at 13:24







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Fortunately my answer already addresses this new version.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 13:48










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, I didn't quite understand your solution. I am going to sit down, and re-read it until it hopefully clicks. Thanks again for taking your time to respond!
            $endgroup$
            – red31
            May 26 at 14:01






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            If you believe the proof then no example is needed...
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 14:50






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, your example demonstrates the construction nicely.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 15:34











          Your Answer








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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          5












          $begingroup$

          Add $n$ empty sets, and choose $K = n + 1$. Every solution for the original problem is (without loss of generality) of size between $1$ to $n$, so using the empty sets you can complete it to a solution of size exactly $K$.



          If you're determined to have your collection duplicate-free, add $n$ new elements $y_1,ldots,y_n$, and the following sets:
          $$
          y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n,y_1,y_2,y_1,y_2,y_3,ldots,y_1,ldots,y_n.
          $$

          There are exact covers of the new elements of any size from $1$ to $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I have edited the question, to make it more clear. Sorry for the confusion.
            $endgroup$
            – red31
            May 26 at 13:24







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Fortunately my answer already addresses this new version.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 13:48










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, I didn't quite understand your solution. I am going to sit down, and re-read it until it hopefully clicks. Thanks again for taking your time to respond!
            $endgroup$
            – red31
            May 26 at 14:01






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            If you believe the proof then no example is needed...
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 14:50






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, your example demonstrates the construction nicely.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 15:34















          5












          $begingroup$

          Add $n$ empty sets, and choose $K = n + 1$. Every solution for the original problem is (without loss of generality) of size between $1$ to $n$, so using the empty sets you can complete it to a solution of size exactly $K$.



          If you're determined to have your collection duplicate-free, add $n$ new elements $y_1,ldots,y_n$, and the following sets:
          $$
          y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n,y_1,y_2,y_1,y_2,y_3,ldots,y_1,ldots,y_n.
          $$

          There are exact covers of the new elements of any size from $1$ to $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            I have edited the question, to make it more clear. Sorry for the confusion.
            $endgroup$
            – red31
            May 26 at 13:24







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Fortunately my answer already addresses this new version.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 13:48










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, I didn't quite understand your solution. I am going to sit down, and re-read it until it hopefully clicks. Thanks again for taking your time to respond!
            $endgroup$
            – red31
            May 26 at 14:01






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            If you believe the proof then no example is needed...
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 14:50






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, your example demonstrates the construction nicely.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 15:34













          5












          5








          5





          $begingroup$

          Add $n$ empty sets, and choose $K = n + 1$. Every solution for the original problem is (without loss of generality) of size between $1$ to $n$, so using the empty sets you can complete it to a solution of size exactly $K$.



          If you're determined to have your collection duplicate-free, add $n$ new elements $y_1,ldots,y_n$, and the following sets:
          $$
          y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n,y_1,y_2,y_1,y_2,y_3,ldots,y_1,ldots,y_n.
          $$

          There are exact covers of the new elements of any size from $1$ to $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Add $n$ empty sets, and choose $K = n + 1$. Every solution for the original problem is (without loss of generality) of size between $1$ to $n$, so using the empty sets you can complete it to a solution of size exactly $K$.



          If you're determined to have your collection duplicate-free, add $n$ new elements $y_1,ldots,y_n$, and the following sets:
          $$
          y_1,y_2,ldots,y_n,y_1,y_2,y_1,y_2,y_3,ldots,y_1,ldots,y_n.
          $$

          There are exact covers of the new elements of any size from $1$ to $n$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered May 25 at 14:34









          Yuval FilmusYuval Filmus

          201k15194358




          201k15194358











          • $begingroup$
            I have edited the question, to make it more clear. Sorry for the confusion.
            $endgroup$
            – red31
            May 26 at 13:24







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Fortunately my answer already addresses this new version.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 13:48










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, I didn't quite understand your solution. I am going to sit down, and re-read it until it hopefully clicks. Thanks again for taking your time to respond!
            $endgroup$
            – red31
            May 26 at 14:01






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            If you believe the proof then no example is needed...
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 14:50






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, your example demonstrates the construction nicely.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 15:34
















          • $begingroup$
            I have edited the question, to make it more clear. Sorry for the confusion.
            $endgroup$
            – red31
            May 26 at 13:24







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Fortunately my answer already addresses this new version.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 13:48










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, I didn't quite understand your solution. I am going to sit down, and re-read it until it hopefully clicks. Thanks again for taking your time to respond!
            $endgroup$
            – red31
            May 26 at 14:01






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            If you believe the proof then no example is needed...
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 14:50






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, your example demonstrates the construction nicely.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Filmus
            May 26 at 15:34















          $begingroup$
          I have edited the question, to make it more clear. Sorry for the confusion.
          $endgroup$
          – red31
          May 26 at 13:24





          $begingroup$
          I have edited the question, to make it more clear. Sorry for the confusion.
          $endgroup$
          – red31
          May 26 at 13:24





          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Fortunately my answer already addresses this new version.
          $endgroup$
          – Yuval Filmus
          May 26 at 13:48




          $begingroup$
          Fortunately my answer already addresses this new version.
          $endgroup$
          – Yuval Filmus
          May 26 at 13:48












          $begingroup$
          Sorry, I didn't quite understand your solution. I am going to sit down, and re-read it until it hopefully clicks. Thanks again for taking your time to respond!
          $endgroup$
          – red31
          May 26 at 14:01




          $begingroup$
          Sorry, I didn't quite understand your solution. I am going to sit down, and re-read it until it hopefully clicks. Thanks again for taking your time to respond!
          $endgroup$
          – red31
          May 26 at 14:01




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          If you believe the proof then no example is needed...
          $endgroup$
          – Yuval Filmus
          May 26 at 14:50




          $begingroup$
          If you believe the proof then no example is needed...
          $endgroup$
          – Yuval Filmus
          May 26 at 14:50




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Yes, your example demonstrates the construction nicely.
          $endgroup$
          – Yuval Filmus
          May 26 at 15:34




          $begingroup$
          Yes, your example demonstrates the construction nicely.
          $endgroup$
          – Yuval Filmus
          May 26 at 15:34

















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